Q1. In which year, did the Territorial Council of Himachal Pradesh come into existence?

• (A) 1st September, 1956
• (B) 15th August, 1957
• (C) 1st November, 1962
• (D) 1st February, 1960

Q2. Jaiwant Ram, First Speaker of Himachal Pradesh Vidhan Sabha (1952-56) represented which constituency in the Assembly?

• (A) Bhattiyat
• (B) Churah
• (C) Chamba
• (D) Bharmour

Q3. Under the British rule, when was the Municipal Government first introduced in Shimla?

• (A) August 1857
• (B) November 1883
• (C) January 1857
• (D) December 1851

Q4. In which year “Dharam Chand Natak” was written by Manik Chand?

• (A) 1560 A.D.
• (B) 1562 A.D.
• (C) 1564 A.D.
• (D) 1567 A.D.

Q5. Which of the following statements are not true?
(i) Raja Baldeo Chand was first ‘Viceregal Darbari’ in the Kangra District.
(ii) In the battle of Mahal Morian Raja Sansar Chand was defeated.
(iii) In 1825 A.D the Sikhs laid siege to the palace and fort of Kutlehar.
(iv) Desa Singh Majithia was appointed Kiladar of the Kangra fort by Maharaja Ranjit Singh.

• (A) None of these
• (B) All of these
• (C) (i) and (iv) only
• (D) (ii) and (iii) only

Q6. The most ancient art and architecture of Himachal Pradesh was on:

• (A) Wood
• (B) Copper
• (C) Iron
• (D) Stone

Q7. Which of the following statements is/are true?
(i) Kirgram (Baijnath) was the famous capital of Kiratas.
(ii) The temple of Vishveshwara is a unique example of the later Gupta tradition of Shikhara temple.
(iii) The famous shrine of Trilokinath is located in the Chandrabhaga Valley.
(iv) The original temple of Trilokinath was built by Lalitaditya in the 8th century.

• (A) (iii) and (iv) only
• (B) (i) and (ii) only
• (C) All of these
• (D) None of these

Q8. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Author): (a) B.C. Chhabra, (b) Hermen Goetz, (c) M.S. Randhawa, (d) W.G. Archer
List-II (Books): (i) Basholi Painting, (ii) Indian Paintings in the Punjab Hills, (iii) The Early Wooden Temples of Chamba, (iv) Antiquities of Chamba State, Part-II

• (A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
• (B) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
• (C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
• (D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

Q9. The Himachal sculpture can be divided into which of the following groups?
(i) The Mythological and Human figures (ii) The Animal figures (iii) The Agriculture designs (iv) The Geometrical designs

• (A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
• (B) (iv) only
• (C) All of these
• (D) None of these

Q10. Consider the following statements:
(1) The Himalayan Hill States Sub-Regional Council held its first conference on 31 July 1948 at Suket.
(2) Pandit Padam Dev was elected the First Head of the Himalayan Hill States Sub-Regional Council.
(3) Jaswan State was founded by Purab Chand in 1170 A.D.
(4) Raja Purab Chand of Jaswan established his capital at Rajpura.

• (A) (1) and (4) only
• (B) (2) and (4) only
• (C) (3) and (4) only
• (D) (2) and (3) only

Q11. Chandrakhani Pass joins:

• (A) Dharamshala and Chamba
• (B) Kullu and Lahaul
• (C) Naggar and Malana
• (D) Spiti and Ladakh

Q12. Kanawar Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which district?

• (A) Solan
• (B) Chamba
• (C) Kullu
• (D) Kinnaur

Q13. Consider the following statements:
(1) Dry-Hill soil zone of Himachal Pradesh has negligible monsoon rainfall.
(2) Kasol hot water springs are located in Mandi district.
(3) Khair is the main species of tropical thorny forests in Himachal Pradesh.
(4) The Himachal Pradesh Forest Policy was framed in 2015.

• (A) (2) and (3) only
• (B) (1) and (4) only
• (C) (3) and (4) only
• (D) (1) and (3) only

Q14. Arrange the following cities from West to East in Himachal Pradesh:
(1) Dharamshala (2) Una (3) Mandi (4) Bilaspur

• (A) (1), (2), (4), (3)
• (B) (1), (4), (2), (3)
• (C) (2), (1), (4), (3)
• (D) (2), (1), (3), (4)

Q15. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: Kinnaur has the lowest population density in Himachal Pradesh as per census of India 2011.
Statement-II: Lahaul and Spiti has recorded the negative decadal growth over the 2001-2011.

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q16. Consider the following statements:
(1) Churdhar in Sirmaur is the highest peak of Siwalik range.
(2) Dhauladhar is also known as ‘White Range’.
(3) Nagru is the highest peak in Kullu district.
(4) Rohtang Pass lies in Dhauladhar range.

• (A) (2) and (4) only
• (B) (1) and (2) only
• (C) (1) and (3) only
• (D) (3) and (4) only

Q17. Consider the following statements:
(1) Barog is the smallest tunnel on Kalka-Shimla railway.
(2) Kalka-Shimla railway was built in 1898.
(3) Kalka-Shimla railway was inaugurated in November 1913.
(4) Kalka-Shimla railway is 96 km in length.

• (A) (2) and (4) only
• (B) (1) and (4) only
• (C) (1) and (3) only
• (D) (2) and (3) only

Q18. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Project): (a) Uhl Stage-III, (b) Karcham Wangtoo, (c) Neugal, (d) Allain-Duhangan
List-II (Private Company): (i) Rajasthan Spinning and Weaving Corporation, (ii) Balarpur Industries, (iii) Jai Prakash Industries, (iv) Om Power Corporation

• (A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
• (B) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
• (C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
• (D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Q19. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Wildlife Sanctuary): (a) Shikari Devi, (b) Chail, (c) Tirthan, (d) Chandra Taal
List-II (Year of Establishment): (i) 1976, (ii) 1994, (iii) 2007, (iv) 1974

• (A) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
• (B) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
• (C) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
• (D) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

Q20. Arrange the following rivers according to their flow length in Himachal Pradesh from longest to shortest:
(1) Sutlej (2) Beas (3) Chenab (4) Ravi

• (A) (2), (4), (3), (1)
• (B) (1), (4), (2), (3)
• (C) (1), (2), (4), (3)
• (D) (2), (3), (1), (4)

Q21. Choose the correct statement/s:
Statement-I: The literacy rate in Himachal Pradesh was 82.80 per cent in 2011, which was 8.8 per cent higher than the national average of 74.0 per cent.
Statement-II: According to the National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5) conducted in 2019-21, the latest figures show that the literacy rate in Himachal Pradesh has increased to 93.3 per cent.

• (A) Only Statement I is correct
• (B) Only Statement II is correct
• (C) Both are correct
• (D) Both are incorrect

Q22. Which of the following statement/s is/are true regarding Swarn Jayanti Super 100 Yojana of Himachal Pradesh Government?
Statement I: The Government has sanctioned an amount to ₹ 100 crore in this scheme during the financial year 2024-25.
Statement II: A financial assistance @ ₹ 1.00 Lakh is provided to the top 100 meritorious students of 10th class of Government schools for undergoing coaching for admission in professional/technical courses.

• (A) Only Statement I is correct
• (B) Only Statement II is correct
• (C) Both are correct
• (D) Both are incorrect

Q23. Choose the correct statement/s:
Statement-I: In Himachal Pradesh, enrolment percentage of female students in government schools is more as compared to male students.
Statement-II: But in private schools, enrolment percentage of male students is more as compared to female students.

• (A) Only Statement I is correct
• (B) Only Statement II is correct
• (C) Both are correct
• (D) Both are incorrect

Q24. As per SRS-based abridged life tables 2016-20, Life expectancy at birth in Himachal Pradesh for females and males respectively are:

• (A) 77.5 and 70.3
• (B) 75.5 and 72.3
• (C) 75.7 and 73.3
• (D) 76.5 and 71.8

Q25. According to Budget estimate of Himachal Pradesh for the year 2025-26, what is the share of Revenue Receipts in total receipts?

• (A) 50.90%
• (B) 59.75%
• (C) 66.85%
• (D) 74.35%

Q26. Tourism industry contributes what percent in Himachal’s GSDP as per Economic Survey of the state 2024-25?

• (A) 14.5%
• (B) 10.75%
• (C) 8.65%
• (D) 7.78%

Q27. As per Budget speech of the Finance Minister of Himachal Pradesh, GSDP and per capita income during 2024-25 is estimated to increase by:

• (A) 6.7 and 9.6 respectively
• (B) 7.7 and 8.6 respectively
• (C) 7.8 and 6.9 respectively
• (D) 9.7 and 6.7 respectively

Q28. Match the following statistics on Himachal Pradesh as per NFHS-5 (2019-21):
(a) Total Fertility Rate, (b) Infant Mortality Rate, (c) Under-five Mortality Rate, (d) Percentage of children Stunted
List II: (i) 26, (ii) 31, (iii) 29, (iv) 1.7

• (A) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
• (B) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
• (C) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
• (D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

Q29. Which of the following is not correct as per Census 2011?

• (A) Decadal Population Growth Rate of Himachal Pradesh was 12.94 percent.
• (B) Kangra is the most populous district.
• (C) 25 percent is the urban population in Himachal.
• (D) Hamirpur has the highest density of population among all districts.

Q30. Contribution of Secondary and Tertiary sector in GSDP of Himachal Pradesh during FY 2023-24 is:

• (A) 29.98% and 55.28% respectively
• (B) 39.98% and 45.28% respectively
• (C) 35.5% and 45.28% respectively
• (D) 35.5% and 55.28% respectively

Q31. Which of the following films secured the most 5 Oscars in the 97th Oscar Awards held in Los Angeles?

• (A) The Brutalist
• (B) A Real Pain
• (C) Anora
• (D) Flow

Q32. Where was the Artificial Intelligence Action Summit held in 2025?

• (A) New Delhi
• (B) Paris
• (C) Seoul
• (D) Bletchley Park

Q33. Which of the following countries have not withdrawn from the Economic Community of West African States?

• (A) Niger
• (B) Mali
• (C) Togo
• (D) Burkina Faso

Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the office and election of the President of the United States of America (USA):
(1) Among the states of USA, Texas has the highest 54 electoral votes in the Presidential elections.
(2) Donald Trump won 312 elector votes, well-over 270 votes required to win in the 2024 elections.
(3) Every newly elected President takes oath every four years on 20 January.
(4) Hillary Clinton received more votes overall than Donald Trump in the 2016 Presidential Election.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (A) (1), (3) and (4) only
• (B) (2), (3) and (4) only
• (C) (2) and (3) only
• (D) (1), (2), (3) are correct

Q35. Read the statements given below:
(1) Grand Ayatollah Sayyid Ali Khamenei is the supreme leader of Iran.
(2) Alexander Lukashenko is the President of the Republic of Belarus.
(3) Yulia Svyrydenko was appointed as the Prime Minister of Ukraine.
(4) Ursula Gertrud von der Leyen is the President of European Union.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (A) (1) and (2) only
• (B) (2), (3) and (4) only
• (C) (1), (2) and (3) only
• (D) (1), (2), (3) and (4)

Q36. Consider the following statements:
(1) Jannik Sinner is the Wimbledon 2025 men’s singles champion.
(2) Roger Federer has won maximum 22 Grand Slam Men’s Single Titles in Tennis History.
(3) Rafael Nadal holds the record for the most single titles won at the French Open, with an unparalleled 14 titles.
(4) The woman player who has won the maximum single trophies in Grand Slam tournaments is Serena Williams.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (A) (1), (2) and (4) only
• (B) (2), (3) and (4) only
• (C) (1), (2) and (3) only
• (D) (1), (2), (3) and (4) only

Q37. Consider the following statements:
(1) World Water Day is celebrated on 22nd February every year.
(2) World Earth Day is celebrated on 22nd April every year.
(3) World Environment Day is observed every year on 5th June.
(4) Victory Day is celebrated in Russia on 5th May.

• (A) (1) and (2) only
• (B) (2) and (3) only
• (C) (2), (3) and (4) only
• (D) (2) and (4) only

Q38. Prime Minister Modi has been honoured with the civilian award by several countries:
(1) Grand Cross of the Legion of Honour, France
(2) Grand Cross with Collar, Russia
(3) Grand Commander of the Order of the Star and Key of the Indian Ocean award, Maldives
(4) Mitra Vibhushana award, Mauritius
Which of the countries mentioned above are correctly mentioned?

• (A) (1) and (2) only
• (B) (2) and (3) only
• (C) (1), (2) and (3) only
• (D) (2), (3) and (4) only

Q39. Consider the statements given below:
(1) The term “Quad” typically refers to the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue.
(2) United States, Japan, India and Australia were the original member countries of QUAD.
(3) The “New Quad” or “Middle East Quad” that is emerging, comprised of India, the US, Israel, Qatar, and the UAE.
(4) The QUAD members have both economic and military focus, particularly the Indo-Pacific region.
Which of the statements mentioned above are correctly mentioned?

• (A) (2), (3) and (4) only
• (B) (1), (2) and (3) only
• (C) (1), (2) and (4) only
• (D) (1), (2), (3) and (4)

Q40. Consider the statements given below:
(1) Finland, Sweden has become the newest member of the NATO.
(2) Bangladesh Chhatra League has been playing an important role in supporting the interim government of Bangladesh.
(3) Ukraine has been seeking NATO membership.
(4) SCO Summit would take place in Tianjin in 2025.
Which of the statements mentioned above are correctly mentioned?

• (A) (2), (3) and (4) only
• (B) (1), (2) and (3) only
• (C) (1), (3) and (4) only
• (D) (1), (2), (3) and (4)

Q41. Which ministry recently started the Aroma Mission?

• (A) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
• (B) Ministry of Home Affairs
• (C) Ministry of Agriculture
• (D) Ministry of Science and Technology

Q42. Which agricultural university of India developed “Patkai” rice variety?

• (A) Indian Agricultural Research Institute
• (B) Assam Agricultural University
• (C) Central Agricultural University
• (D) Punjab Agricultural University

Q43. Consider the following statements:
(1) Rushikulya river mouth in Odisha pertains to Olive Ridley turtles.
(2) Olive Ridley turtles are rare species according to IUCN.
(3) Rushikulya river rises from the Mahendragiri hills.
(4) Rushikulya river forms no delta at its mouth.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (2) and (4) only
• (B) (3) and (4) only
• (C) (1) and (2) only
• (D) (1) and (4) only

Q44. Consider the following statements related to the bilateral relation between India and Pakistan:
(1) Nehru-Liaquat Pact, also known as Delhi Pact was signed in 1949.
(2) Indus Water Treaty negotiated by the World Bank was signed in 1960.
(3) Tashkent Declaration was made in 1966.
(4) Shimla Agreement was signed in 1971.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (A) (1), (3) and (4) only
• (B) (2) and (3) only
• (C) (2), (3) and (4) only
• (D) (1), (2), (3) and (4) are correct

Q45. Consider the following statements:
(1) India is the leading milk producing country in the world.
(2) Jute is significantly cultivated in West Bengal.
(3) Maize is categorised as Millet.
(4) Golden Revolution refers to the development of Horticulture.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (A) (1), (2) and (4) only
• (B) (1), (2) and (3) only
• (C) (2), (3) and (4) only
• (D) (1), (2), (3) and (4) are correct

Q46. Consider the following statements related to cloud burst:
(1) Cloud Burst occurs in Hilly areas.
(2) Cloud Burst is a localised weather phenomenon representing highly concentrated rainfall over a small area in a very short period of time.
(3) Cloud Burst occurs due to upward movement of moisture-laden cool air.
(4) Moisture coming from Arabia Sea to the west is swept up by mountains in a process known as orographic lift.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (A) (1), (2) and (3) only
• (B) (1), (2) and (4) only
• (C) (2), (3) and (4) only
• (D) (1), (2), (3) and (4) are correct

Q47. Consider the following statements:
(1) Aluminium is manufactured from Bauxite Ore.
(2) Mica is used in Electrical Industry.
(3) Manganese is used in Steel Alloys.
(4) Lignite is used in Thermal power.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (A) (1), (2) and (3) only
• (B) (1), (2) and (4) only
• (C) (2), (3) and (4) only
• (D) (1), (2), (3) and (4) are correct

Q48. Which of the following National Parks of India is declared as World Heritage by UNESCO?

• (A) Ranthambore National Park
• (B) Kaziranga National Park
• (C) Sundarban National Park
• (D) Keoladeo National Park

Q49. Consider the following statements:
(1) Bihu festival is celebrated in Assam
(2) Pongal is celebrated in Tamil Nadu
(3) Onam is celebrated in Kerala
(4) Sarhul is celebrated in Jharkhand
Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (A) (2) and (3) only
• (B) (1) and (4) only
• (C) (3) and (4) only
• (D) (1), (2), (3) and (4) only

Q50. Consider the following statements related to the India’s economy:
(1) UPI stands for Unified Payments Interface
(2) MRTP full form is The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act
(3) FERA full form is Foreign Exchange Regulation Act
(4) IBC full form is Insolvency and Banking Code
Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (A) (1), (2) and (3) only
• (B) (1), (2) and (4) only
• (C) (1), (3) and (4) only
• (D) (1), (2), (3) and (4) only

Q51. Which of the following is a air-borne disease?

• (A) Typhoid
• (B) Cholera
• (C) Dysentery
• (D) Tuberculosis

Q52. When was the Insulin discovered?

• (A) 1815
• (B) 1943
• (C) 1921
• (D) 1953

Q53. Which of the following is not an example of a bio-mass energy source?

• (A) Wood
• (B) Gobar-gas
• (C) Nuclear energy
• (D) Coal

Q54. Which of the following is not a member of the solar system?

• (A) An asteroid
• (B) A satellite
• (C) A constellation
• (D) A comet

Q55. Consider the following statements:
(1) Wastes should be recycled to control soil pollution.
(2) Noise pollution leads to weakening of heart.
(3) Soil erosion is the washing away of pollutants from sewage.
(4) DDT and BHC are flammable chemicals.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1) and (4) only
• (B) (1) and (2) only
• (C) (2) and (4) only
• (D) (3) and (4) only

Q56. Which one of the following types of medicines is used for treating indigestion?

• (A) Antibiotic
• (B) Analgesic
• (C) Antacid
• (D) Antiseptic

Q57. Food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc because:

• (A) Zinc is costlier than tin.
• (B) Zinc has a higher melting point than tin.
• (C) Zinc is more reactive than tin.
• (D) Zinc is less reactive than tin.

Q58. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: A concave lens always forms erect, virtual and smaller image than the object.
Statement-II: White light is composed of five colours.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q59. Arrange the following fuels in increasing order of their calorific value.
(1) Wood (2) CNG (3) Coal (4) Hydrogen
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1), (2), (4), (3)
• (B) (4), (3), (1), (2)
• (C) (1), (3), (2), (4)
• (D) (2), (4), (1), (3)

Q60. Arrange the following solutions according to their increasing pH value.
(1) Milk of magnesia (2) Lemon Juice (3) Blood (4) Gastric Juice
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (2), (3), (1), (4)
• (B) (4), (2), (3), (1)
• (C) (3), (1), (2), (4)
• (D) (1), (2), (3), (4)

Q61. Who wrote it, “Caste in India was a form of Social and Industrial organisation just like class in modern Industrial Society”?

• (A) Lala Lajpat Rai
• (B) Mahatma Jyotiba Phule
• (C) Sri Narayan Guru
• (D) Mahatma Gandhi

Q62. Who among the following had declared that – “I have not become his Majesty’s Prime Minister to preside over the demise of the British Empire”?

• (A) Neville Chamberlain
• (B) Stanley Baldwin
• (C) Winston Churchill
• (D) David Lyod George

Q63. Who presided over the Lucknow Session (1916) of the Indian National Congress?

• (A) Motilal Nehru
• (B) Ambica Charan Majumdar
• (C) M. A. Jinnah
• (D) M. A. Ansari

Q64. Who among the following founded the “Free India Society” in London?

• (A) Bhikaiji Cama
• (B) Lala Hardayal
• (C) V. D. Savarkar
• (D) Bhai Parmanand

Q65. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: ‘Mohammedan Literary Society’ was founded by Nawab Abdul Latif in 1863 in Calcutta.
Statement-II: Dadabhai Naoroji established the “Indian Patriotic Association” in 1888.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q66. Consider the following Dynasties in ancient India:
(1) The Pala dynasty ruled over parts of present day Bengal and Bihar.
(2) The Chola dynasty ruled over the present day Tamil Nadu and other parts of South India.
(3) The Pandya dynasty ruled over the present day Tamil Nadu and other parts of South India.
(4) The Satavahana kingdom was based in the present day Andhra Pradesh, Telangana and Maharashtra.
Which of the above statements are correctly mentioned?

• (A) (1) and (2) only
• (B) (1), (2) and (4) only
• (C) (1), (3) and (4) only
• (D) (1), (2), (3) and (4) only

Q67. Arrange the following Governor Generals of Bengal in chronological order:
(1) Marquess of Hastings (2) Lord Amherest (3) John Shore (4) Earl of Minto
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1), (4), (3), (2)
• (B) (3), (4), (2), (1)
• (C) (3), (4), (1), (2)
• (D) (3), (2), (4), (1)

Q68. Which constitutional amendment made it mandatory for the President to be bound by the advice of Council of Ministers?

• (A) 42nd Amendment
• (B) 44th Amendment
• (C) 25th Amendment
• (D) 24th Amendment

Q69. Put these events of freedom movement in chronological order:
(1) Simon Commission (2) Lucknow Pact (3) Communal Award (4) Khilafat Movement
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (2), (1), (3), (4)
• (B) (1), (3), (2), (4)
• (C) (2), (4), (1), (3)
• (D) (4), (2), (3), (1)

Q70. Considering the following functionaries and put them in appropriate hierarchical order:
(1) Cabinet Secretary (2) Chief Election Commissioner (3) Union Cabinet Minister (4) Chief Justice of India
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (3), (4), (2), (1)
• (B) (4), (3), (1), (2)
• (C) (4), (3), (2), (1)
• (D) (3), (4), (1), (2)

Q71. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against exploitation in Indian Constitution?
(1) Prohibition of traffic in human being and forced labour (2) Protection of interests of minority (3) Abolition of untouchability (4) Prohibition of employment of children in factories
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
• (B) (2), (3) and (4)
• (C) (1) and (4)
• (D) (1), (2) and (4)

Q72. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: Mrs. Indira Gandhi was opposed to Committed Bureaucracy.
Statement-II: Power of judicial review helps in the establishment of supremacy of judiciary.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q73. Regarding Basic Structure Theory of the Constitution, which judgements are correct?
(1) Indira Nehru Gandhi Vs. Raj Narayan
(2) S.P. Gupta Vs. Union of India
(3) Kesavananda Bharati Vs. State of Kerala
(4) Minerva Mills Vs. Union of India
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (2) and (4)
• (B) (1), (2), (3)
• (C) (1), (3), (4)
• (D) (2), (3), (4)

Q74. Match List-I and List-II:
List-I (States): (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Bihar (d) Maharashtra
List-II (Lok Sabha Seats): (i) 48 (ii) 39 (iii) 42 (iv) 40
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
• (B) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
• (C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
• (D) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

Q75. Arrange the establishment of these women organizations in a sequencing order.
(1) All India Women’s Conference (AIWC)
(2) Forum Against Oppression of Women (FAOW)
(3) National Council for Women in India (NCWI)
(4) Self Employed Women’s Association (SEWA)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
• (B) (2), (3), (4), (1)
• (C) (3), (1), (4), (2)
• (D) (2), (4), (1), (3)

Q76. As per Economic Survey 2024-25, Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) at constant prices is estimated to grow by ……… for FY 2025.

• (A) 6.4 percent
• (B) 4.8 percent
• (C) 7.3 percent
• (D) 6.0 percent

Q77. Choose the correct option:
Statement-I: World Bank has reported that consumption-based Gini coefficient in India has declined from 28.8 in 2011-12 to 25.5 in 2022-23.
Statement-II: China’s Consumption based Gini coefficient by World Bank report (2023) was 35.7. This indicates India experienced lower consumption inequality than China.

• (A) Only Statement I is correct
• (B) Only Statement II is correct
• (C) Both are correct
• (D) Both are incorrect

Q78. Which of the following is excluded from the Revenue Deficit while calculating the value of Effective Revenue Deficit?

• (A) Grants for creation of capital assets
• (B) Interest Payment
• (C) Tax Expenditure
• (D) Expenditure on defence

Q79. Logistic Ease Across Different States (LEADS) Report is brought out by:

• (A) Ministry of Finance
• (B) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
• (C) NITI Aayog
• (D) Finance Commission

Q80. Arrange the following items in terms of allocation in Union Budget 2025-26 in descending order:
(1) Defence (2) Agriculture and Allied Activities (3) Education (4) Rural Development (5) Home Affairs
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1), (4), (3), (5), (2)
• (B) (1), (2), (5), (3), (4)
• (C) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5)
• (D) (1), (4), (5), (2), (3)

Q81. According to Budget Estimate 2025-26, what is the share of income tax in the revenue of Union Government?

• (A) 24%
• (B) 22%
• (C) 20%
• (D) 18%

Q82. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) determines the Policy repo rate to achieve the inflation target.
Statement-II: MPC functions under the Chairmanship of Union Finance Minister.
Choose the correct option:

• (A) Only Statement I is correct
• (B) Only Statement II is correct
• (C) Both are correct
• (D) Both are incorrect

Q83. The term ‘Cage Culture’ is used for:

• (A) Blue Revolution
• (B) Green Revolution
• (C) White Revolution
• (D) Orange Revolution

Q84. Which of the following is best suited for the tidal energy potential?

• (A) Gulf of Khambhat
• (B) Sundarbans Delta
• (C) Andaman Islands
• (D) Bay of Mahim

Q85. According to Thornthwaite’s classification of climate for India D’ refers to:

• (A) Temperate semi-arid type climate
• (B) Taiga type climate
• (C) Cold tundra type climate
• (D) Tropical humid climate

Q86. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: Green Revolution technology was introduced in India through the efforts of C. Subramaniam.
Statement-II: Green Revolution technology generated new jobs for farm workers in northern states of India.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q87. Arrange the following islands of Lakshadweep from north to south direction:
(1) Kiltan (2) Kalpeni (3) Chetlat (4) Kadmat
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
• (B) (3), (1), (4), (2)
• (C) (4), (3), (2), (1)
• (D) (2), (4), (1), (3)

Q88. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Project): (a) Kakarpara (b) Koyana (c) Pochampad (d) Sardar Sarovar
List-II (River): (i) Narmada (ii) Tapi (iii) Koyana (iv) Godavari
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
• (B) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
• (C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
• (D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

Q89. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: Pipeline transportation network only carries liquid and gaseous materials.
Statement-II: The initial cost of laying down the pipelines as well as subsequent running cost are high.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q92. Which of the following is a major oil producing field in India?

• (A) Anta
• (B) Singareni
• (C) Bassein
• (D) Neyvalli

Q93. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: Four states of India share the international boundary with Bangladesh.
Statement-II: Bhutan shares the shortest boundary with India after Afghanistan.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q94. Arrange the following states in India in descending order in terms of total geographical area:
(1) Madhya Pradesh (2) Maharashtra (3) Rajasthan (4) Uttar Pradesh
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (2), (3), (1), (4)
• (B) (2), (3), (4), (1)
• (C) (3), (2), (1), (4)
• (D) (3), (2), (4), (1)

Q95. The principle of ‘Drop’, ‘Cover’ and ‘Hold On’ pertain to:

• (A) Tsunami
• (B) Volcano
• (C) Earthquake
• (D) Flood

Q96. Arrange the following towns polluting the Ganga River from east to west direction in India:
(1) Rishikesh (2) Kanpur (3) Chapra (4) Titagarh
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (2), (4), (1), (3)
• (B) (3), (2), (4), (1)
• (C) (4), (3), (2), (1)
• (D) (1), (2), (3), (4)

Q97. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: National Air Monitoring Programme was started in 1984.
Statement-II: High concentration of ozone causes dark brown lesions on upper surface of leaves.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q98. Which among the following books was not written by Mahatma Gandhi?

• (A) Guide to London
• (B) The Way to Durable Peace
• (C) Economics of Khadi
• (D) The Law and the Lawyers

Q99. Gandhiji said, “It has afforded me invaluable help in my moments of gloom.” In this assertion – ‘It’ denotes:

• (A) Bible
• (B) Upanisad
• (C) Gita
• (D) Quran

Q100. Which of the following formative influences not included in the philosophy of Mahatma Gandhi?

• (A) Gandhiji was influenced by the 18th century Pranami sect that advocated the unity of faiths
• (B) Gandhiji was influenced by the theosophists
• (C) Gandhiji was much influenced by authors such as Leo Tolstoy
• (D) Gandhiji was an admirer of the writings of Romantics like Wordsworth