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HPAS Prelims Indian Polity & Governance Previous Year Questions (2010 – 2025)

Mastering HPAS Prelims Indian Polity and Governance questions is essential to secure competitive marks in the Himachal Pradesh Administrative Services examination. This structured database brings together previous year questions (PYQs) dealing with Constitutional Provisions, Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles, Parliamentary Committees, Statutory/Non-Statutory Bodies, and local governance. Track your performance using this active quiz module.

💡 Interactive Quiz: Click on any option in the questions below to instantly reveal the correct answer!

For detailed subject-wise explanations and in-depth solutions, click the link below:

👉 Complete Solutions with Explanations
Jump to Exam Year:
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HPAS 2025 Indian Polity Questions

Q6. Who decides the disqualification of members of the State Legislative Assembly, for matters other than those in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution?
Q7. What is the objective of a ‘Cut Motion’ in the Parliament?
Q68. Consider the following statements:

(1) Constitutional Drafting Committee had seven members.
(2) B.R. Ambedkar was Chairman of the Drafting Committee.
(3) Jawaharlal Nehru was one of the members of that committee.
(4) Mohammad Saadulla was not a member of that committee.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q70. Consider the following statements:

(1) Article 13(2) provides reservations to backward classes.
(2) Article 15(4) and 16(4) provide reservations for OBCs.
(3) Article 15(6) and 16(6) provide reservations to EWS of society.
(4) Article 14 provides reservation for SC & STs.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q85. In which case did the Supreme Court decide that not singing the National Anthem cannot be considered a disrespect or offence?
Q89. Match List I with List II:

List-I (Constitutional Amendments):
(a) 77th Amendment
(b) 81st Amendment
(c) 82nd Amendment
(d) 85th Amendment

List-II (Reservations for SC & STs):
(i) Consequential Seniority in Reservation
(ii) Reservations in Promotion
(iii) Relaxation in Qualifying marks
(iv) Carry forward unfulfilled vacancies of SC & STs

Choose the correct matching option:

HPAS 2024 Indian Polity Questions

Q47. Council of Ministers’ size has been restricted to 15 percent of membership of Lok Sabha by which constitutional amendment?
Q49. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Finance Minister is final authority to decide whether a bill is money bill or not.
Statement II: In Indian system of ‘dyarchy’ was introduced by Government of India Act, 1935 during British period.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Q52. Which of the following statements are correct in relation to Right to Information Act?

(1) This act came into force on 12 October 2005.
(2) It repealed the Official Secret Act, 1923.
(3) It replaced the Freedom of Information Act, 2002.
(4) It does not protect freedom of expression and speech under Article 19.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: *(As graded in official answer key)*
Q55. Consider the following statements:

(1) Constitution amendment bill can be introduced in any house of the parliament.
(2) Centre and States have equal power to amend the constitution.
(3) Amendment in the seventh schedule requires the ratification by the legislatures of not less than half of the states.
(4) Basic structure of the constitution can also be amended.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q56. Consider the following statements: Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

(1) A dispute between Govt. of India and one or more states.
(2) A dispute regarding elections to either House of Parliament.
(3) A dispute between Govt. of India and a Union Territory.
(4) A dispute between two or more states.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q57. Consider the following statements:

(1) There is no mention of no-confidence motion in the Constitution of India.
(2) A motion of no-confidence can be introduced in any house of the Parliament.
(3) A money bill can be tabled in either house of Parliament.
(4) The President cannot return a money bill to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q58. Match List I with List II:

List I (Writs):
(a) Habeas Corpus Writ
(b) Mandamus Writ
(c) Certiorari Writ
(d) Quo Warranto Writ

List II (Meanings):
(i) Re-examining Lower Court records by Superior Court
(ii) Exercising Power under which authority
(iii) Restricting officials to act
(iv) To produce in person

Choose the correct matching option:
Q59. Match List I with List II:

List I (Commissions):
(a) National Commission for Women
(b) National Human Rights Commission
(c) Kaka Kalelkar Commission
(d) National Commission for Protection of Child Rights

List II (Years of Establishment):
(i) 1953
(ii) 1992
(iii) 2005
(iv) 1993

Choose the correct matching option:

HPAS 2023 Indian Polity Questions

Q6. Under which Constitutional amendment reservations to Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) was given?
Q7. Under which Article of the Constitution a speaker allows any member to speak in Parliament in his/her mother language?
Q25. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: President can dissolve the Lok Sabha on the advice of Speaker.
Statement II: Rajya Sabha under Article 312 enjoys special power to appoint members of Human Rights Commission.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Q26. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: National Flag was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 22 July, 1947.
Statement II: Neelam Sanjiva Reddy has also worked as Speaker, Lok Sabha prior to his election as President of India.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Q47. As per Article 110 of the Constitution, what is true about a money bill?

(1) All the expenditure made by Prime Minister of India
(2) Imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax
(3) Appropriation of money out of consolidated fund of India
(4) Custody of the consolidated fund or contingency fund of India, the payment of money into or the withdrawal of money from any such fund.

Choose the correct option:
Q68. Consider the following statements:

(1) Constitution’s 61st amendment is related to the reduction in voting age.
(2) Constitution’s 93rd amendment is related to reservation for EWS category.
(3) Constitution’s 86th amendment added article 19A in the constitution.
(4) In 2002, duty of parents to provide education to their children from 6 to 14 years was added.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q69. Consider the following statements:

(1) Part-IX was inserted in the constitution by 73rd constitutional amendment.
(2) Art 243D provides reservation to women in Gram Panchayats.
(3) Panchayats are not dependent on states for their budgets.
(4) State legislature can’t make laws for auditing the accounts of Panchayats.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q70. Consider the following statements:

(1) Article 340 of the Constitution deals with the appointment of a Commission for Backward classes.
(2) Article 341 of the Constitution deals with scheduled tribes.
(3) Article 342 of the Constitution is related to scheduled castes.
(4) Article 342A has been added through 102nd constitutional amendment.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q88. Match List I with List II:

List-I (Acts):
a. Domestic Violence Act
b. Sexual Harassment At workplace
c. Commission for Sati (Prevention) Act
d. Dowry Prohibition Act

List-II (Years):
i. 1961
ii. 1987
iii. 2013
iv. 2005

Choose the correct matching option:
Q89. Match List I with List II:

List-I (Provisions):
a. Organisation of village Panchayat
b. Promotion of International Peace and Security
c. Uniform Civil Code
d. Equal Justice and Free legal aid

List-II (Articles):
i. Article 44
ii. Article 39A
iii. Article 40
iv. Article 51

Choose the correct matching option:

HPAS 2021 Indian Polity Questions

Q54. Who decides the matter of disqualification of an MLA for matters other than those given in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution?
Q55. Which article of the Constitution of India bars a member of parliament from holding an office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any state?
Q56. What is the object of a cut motion?
Q57. Through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1/3 seats for women are reserved in the Panchayats under which article?
Q58. When any official does not perform his duty, the High Court or Supreme Court can issue which writ?
Q59. Which Articles have been inserted to provide reservations for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) in 2019?
Q60. The purpose of an adjournment motion is to:
Q61. The judiciary in India enjoys the power of Judicial Review on the principle of “procedure established by Law” which means:
Q62. Regarding the Interim Government of 1946 which of the following is not correct?
Q63. What do you understand by “Zero Hour” in the Indian Parliamentary procedure?
Q64. What constitutes the definition of a Money Bill under Article 110 of the Indian Constitution?
Q65. What is the current position regarding the representation of Anglo-Indians in the Lok Sabha?

HPAS 2020 Indian Polity Questions

Q7. Consider the given four statements:

(1) Part IX has been created after the passing of 73rd constitutional amendment.
(2) Part IXA has been created with the passing of 74th constitutional amendment.
(3) Part X has been created with the approval of 73rd constitutional amendment.
(4) Part XA has been created with the approval of 74th constitutional amendment.

Choose the correct option:
Q8. Consider the given four statements:

(1) Justice Deepak Misra has been instrumental in the creation of Public Interest Litigation (PIL).
(2) Justice Ranjan Gogoi joined Rajya Sabha after retirement from Supreme Court.
(3) Justice P.N. Bhagwati introduced PIL.
(4) Justice V.K. Krishna Iyer resigned before time.

Choose the correct option:
Q14. Match List-I (Amendments) with List-II (Issues):

List-I:
A. First amendment
B. Forty fourth amendment
C. Eighty sixth amendment
D. One hundred and third amendment

List-II:
1. Right to Education
2. Reservation for EWS
3. Right to Property
4. Ninth Schedule

Choose the correct matching option:
Q15. Match List-I (Constitution Articles) with List-II (Area of reservations):

List-I:
A. Article 15 (4) and 16 (4)
B. Article 15 (6) and 16 (6)
C. Article 243 D
D. Article 330

List-II:
1. Lok Sabha Seats
2. Panchayati Raj Institutions
3. Other Backward Classes (OBCs)
4. Economically Weaker Sections (EWS)

Choose the correct matching option:
Q61. Which leader was not a member of the Constitutional Drafting Committee?
Q62. Which of the following officers can be removed from his office by the Governor?
Q63. By what time must a Governor return an ordinary bill to the concerned State Legislative Assembly for re-consideration?

HPAS 2019 Indian Polity Questions

Q26. Which of the following states does not have a bicameral Legislature? *(As per the 2019 exam timeline)*
Q27. Which state first adopted the Panchayati Raj in India in 1959?
Q28. Which of the following is/are true regarding the Panchayati Raj System?

I. The act won’t apply to the Darjeeling district of West Bengal.
II. Allotment of seats in constituencies for Panchayat elections cannot be questioned in any court of law.

Choose the correct option:
Q29. Which of the following are the recommendation/recommendations of the L.M. Singhvi Committee?

I. Nyaya Panchayats should be created for a cluster of villages.
II. Constitutional recognition for Panchayati Raj institutions.
III. More financial resources for village Panchayats.

Choose the correct option:
Q31. Under which schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
Q32. Rajya Sabha can delay the Finance Bill sent for its consideration by the Lok Sabha for a maximum period of:
Q33. The Constitution 86th Amendment Act, 2002 deals with:
Q34. The National Human Rights Commission is a:
Q35. Which Union Ministry has launched a new web portal ‘Santust’ for effective delivery of public service?
Q36. Which state topped the good governance index (GGI), launched by the Central Government on 25th December, 2019?

HPAS 2018 Indian Polity Questions

Q59. Who propounded the idea of Partyless democracy?
Q60. By which Act an element of the election was introduced in India for the first time?
Q62. Match List-1 with List-2 and identify the correct answer from the codes given below:

List-I (Directive Principles):
i. Formation of village panchayat
ii. Uniform civil code
iii. Agriculture and animal husbandry
iv. Separation of judiciary from the executive

List-II (Articles):
1. Article 50
2. Article 48
3. Article 40
4. Article 44

Codes:
Q63. What constitutes the definition of money bill under article 110 of the Indian constitution?
Q64. Under which article of Indian constitution amendment process has been given?
Q65. Which of the following constitutional amendment acts restricted the size of the council of ministers to 15 percent of the total members of the Lok Sabha?
Q66. What is the security deposit amount which a candidate contesting elections for the posts of president and vice-president of India has to tender?
Q67. Which article of Indian constitution mentions the president’s power of pardon?
Q68. Financial emergency under article 360 has been imposed in India in which year?

HPAS 2017 Indian Polity Questions

Q31. Who said that, “The Constituent Assembly was a one party body in an essentially one party country. The assembly was the Congress and the Congress was India”?
Q32. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List-I (Books):
1. The Child and the State in India
2. The Hindu Nationalist Movement and Indian Politics
3. The Political Economy of Development in India
4. Poverty Amid Plenty in the New India

List-II (Authors):
1. Atul Kohli
2. Pranab Bardhan
3. Christopher Jaferlot
4. Myron Weiner

Codes: (1) (2) (3) (4)
Q33. In which case did The Supreme Court give the doctrine of ‘Basic Structure’ of the constitution?
Q34. Which states/union territories are involved in the Caveri river dispute?
Q35. Supreme Court’s judgment in Indira Sawhney Vs. Union of India case dealt with:
Q36. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List-I (Panchayati Raj Committees):
1. C.H Hanumantha Rao
2. C.V.K Rao
3. Ashok Mehta
4. L.M. Singhvi

List-II (Year):
1. 1978
2. 1984
3. 1986
4. 1985

Codes: (1) (2) (3) (4)
Q37. Which of the following is not associated with electoral reforms in India?
Q38. Who described Indian Capitalism as “Dharmshala Capitalism”?
Q39. Which of the following are statutory bodies?

(1) University Grants Commission
(2) Official Language Commission
(3) Railway Board
(4) Atomic Energy Commission

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Q40. Regarding the Interim Government of 1946 which of the following is not correct?
Q41. Who said, Indian federalism is “a new kind of federation to meet India’s peculiar needs”?
Q42. Adi Ambedkar Samaj movement is related to which state?
Q43. When did the Communist Party of India (Marxist) emerge as a separate political party?
Q44. Who described the critical and creative role of politics in India as “the Indian model of development”?
Q45. Match List-I and List-II and identify the correct answer from the codes given below:

List-I (Events):
1. Millennium Development Goals Report
2. National Commission for Women
3. Ministry of Women and Child Development
4. National Mission for Empowerment of Women

List-II (Year):
1. 2010
2. 2006
3. 1992
4. 2011

Codes: (1) (2) (3) (4)

HPAS 2016 Indian Polity Questions

Q61. Which schedule of the Constitution of India contains provisions for the disqualification of a legislator on grounds of defection?
Q62. Power of Judicial Review, provided in the constitution, is exercised on the basis of which principle?
Q63. Who presides over the joint sitting of the Parliament?
Q64. Under which provision can the Speaker allow any member of the House to speak in his/her mother language?
Q65. Supreme Court’s judgement in Indira Sawhney Vs. Union of India is related to which issue?
Q66. Provision for Grant-in-Aid under Article 243 H for the Panchayats has been made out of which sources?
Q67. Which one of the following is a correct sequencing of the features of the Preamble of Indian Constitution?
Q68. Match the following:

List I (Articles):
a) Article 15
b) Article 20
c) Article 25
d) Article 32

List II (Provisions):
(i) Freedom of Religion
(ii) Constitutional Remedies
(iii) Prohibition of Discrimination
(iv) Protection against conviction

Choose the correct code pairing (a)-(b)-(c)-(d):
Q69. Which one of the following is the correct statement with regard to the emergency provisions of the Indian Constitution?
Q70. Which one of the following policies of the Government of India is related to the availability of cooking gas to BPL Households?

HPAS 2014 Indian Polity Questions

Q53. According to Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution was to remain a “dead-letter”?
Q54. The elected members of the State Legislative Assembly participate in the elections of:

(1) The President of India
(2) The Vice-President of India
(3) Members of the Rajya Sabha
(4) Members of Legislative Council

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q55. Which of the following are the exclusive committees of the Rajya Sabha?

(1) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(2) Committee on Government Assurances
(3) Committee on Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(4) Committee on Public Undertakings

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q56. The tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner of India is:
Q57. Which of the Commissions/ Committees recommended that there should be a Minister for Panchayati Raj?
Q58. Which of the following amendments to the Indian Constitution has made the Right to Education a Fundamental Right?
Q59. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Human Rights Commission?

(1) The National Human Rights Commission is an independent body.
(2) It is not a constitutional body.
(3) It is a statutory body.
(4) It is a multi-member body.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: *(As graded in official answer key)*
Q60. What is the correct sequence of the following stages in the public policy formulation process?

(1) Making policy decisions
(2) Putting public problems on policy agenda
(3) Identifying public proposals to deal with the problem
*(Stage 4 omitted in original question text)*

Choose the sequence as indicated in the historical key:
Q61. The responsibility for law and order vests with the Police Commissioner in the cities of:

(1) Chandigarh
(2) Delhi
(3) Mumbai
(4) Kolkata

Choose the correct option:
Q62. Which one of the following functions does not figure in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution (73rd Amendment)?

HPAS 2013 Indian Polity Questions

Q56. What was the exact constitutional status of the Indian Republic on 26th January 1950?
Q57. Who among the following former Presidents contested the election to the office of the President of India without resigning from the office of Vice-President of India?

(1) Dr. Zakir Husain
(2) V.V. Giri
(3) R. Venkataraman
(4) Dr. S.D. Sharma

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q58. Which of the following are the ways of acquiring citizenship of India?

(1) Birth
(2) Descent
(3) Incorporation of Territory
(4) Naturalization

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q59. The Right to Freedom under Article 19 of the Constitution of India may be suspended by the President of India?
Q60. Disagreement between the two Houses of Parliament on which of the following bills can be resolved by the Houses in a joint sitting?

(1) An Ordinary Bill
(2) Money Bill
(3) Constitutional Amendment Bill
(4) Private Member Bill

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q61. Which of the following union territories do not have any representative in the Rajya Sabha? *(Historical status from 2013)*

(1) Delhi
(2) Chandigarh
(3) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(4) Lakshadweep

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q62. Which of the following languages have been declared by the Constitution to be the languages for conducting business in Parliament?
Q63. Which among the following committees was the first to demand constitutional recognition for Panchayats?
Q64. In which of the following states have the Panchayati Raj institutions been set up in conformity with the traditions and customs of the local people?

(1) Assam
(2) Goa
(3) Nagaland
(4) Arunachal Pradesh

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q65. Which one of the following models/theories views public policy as a continuation of previous government activities with some modifications?
Q66. The UN Human Rights Council (HRC) was set up in:
Q67. What were the main findings of the N.N. Vohra Committee?

HPAS 2011 Indian Polity Questions

Q55. If the post of the Vice-President of India is vacant at the time of resignation or demise of the President of India, who among the following assumes the charge of the office of President?
Q56. The Governor has the power to impose Governor’s rule in the State of: *(Historical context from 2011)*
Q57. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched? Former Speaker – Political Party
Q58. Which of the following statements is not correct about a judge of a High Court?
Q59. The Public Accounts Committee presents its report to:
Q60. Under the Constitution of India, the power to issue a writ of Habeas Corpus is vested in:
Q61. In which part of the Indian Constitution has the provision for Panchayats been made?
Q62. When an advance grant is made by Parliament, pending the regular passage of the budget, it is called:
Q63. Under the Constitution of India, Education as a subject of legislation is included in:
Q64. Which one of the following is no longer a source of income of urban local bodies in Punjab, Haryana and Himachal Pradesh?
Q65. The Tenth Schedule added to the Constitution of India by the 52nd Amendment relates to:
Q66. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List I (Provisions):
(1) Privileges of Parliament
(2) Residuary Powers
(3) Directive Principles of State Policy
(4) Judicial Review

List II (Sources):
(a) Irish Constitution
(b) British Constitution
(c) Canadian Constitution
(d) U.S. Constitution

Codes: (1) (2) (3) (4)

HPAS 2010 Indian Polity Questions

Q28. Who was the Chairman of the First Backward Classes Commission of India?
Q32. Who among the following was the Speaker of the first Lok Sabha?
Q33. Which of the following Schedules of the Indian Constitution contains provisions regarding the disqualification of MPs/MLAs on the ground of defection?
Q34. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
Q46. In which one of the following cases has the Preamble been accepted as a part of the Indian Constitution?
Q47. Who amongst the following is empowered to declare an emergency under the Indian Constitution?
Q48. Under the Constitution of India, who is the guardian of fundamental rights?
Q49. Who decides whether a bill is a money bill or not?
Q50. Match the constitutional provisions of the Indian Constitution given in List-I with the countries from which these have been taken in List-II:

List-I:
A) Concurrent list
B) Parliamentary system
C) Impeachment of president
D) Federal structure

List-II:
(1) U.S.A.
(2) Canada
(3) Australia
(4) U.K.

Codes: (A) (B) (C) (D)
Q51. Under which of the following circumstances can an emergency be declared in India?

(1) External aggression
(2) Armed rebellion
(3) Internal unrest
(4) Financial crisis

Choose the correct option:
Q52. Which one of the following is not properly matched?
Q53. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee is related to:
Q54. Who amongst the following can be the Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission? *(Note: Option based on old structural criteria)*
Q55. MNREGA programme is related to:

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