Q1. Arrange the following lengths in their increasing magnitude:
(1) 1 metre
(2) 1 kilometre
(3) 1 millimetre
(4) 1 centimetre
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (3), (4), (2), (1)
• (B) (1), (3), (4), (2)
• (C) (3), (4), (1), (2)
• (D) (2), (1), (4), (3)

Q2. Arrange the following metals from most reactive to least reactive:
(1) Potassium
(2) Gold
(3) Mercury
(4) Zinc
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1), (4), (3), (2)
• (B) (2), (3), (4), (1)
• (C) (1), (2), (4), (3)
• (D) (4), (3), (1), (2)

Q3. Consider the following statements:
(1) Sound cannot travel in vacuum
(2) Sound of frequencies less than 20 vibrations per second cannot be detected by human ear
(3) Unpleasant sounds are called noise
(4) The frequency of sound is expressed in metre per second.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1) and (4) only
• (B) (1) and (3) only
• (C) (2) and (4) only
• (D) (3) and (4) only

Q4. Consider the following statements:
(1) The sole of the shoes are treaded to decrease friction
(2) Sliding friction is smaller than static friction
(3) Friction depends on the nature of surfaces in contact
(4) Friction can be increased by using lubricants
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1) and (3) only
• (B) (1) and (2) only
• (C) (2) and (3) only
• (D) (2) and (4) only

Q5. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Vitamin/Mineral): (a) Iodine, (b) Iron, (c) Calcium, (d) Vitamin C
List-II (Symptoms): (i) Weakness, (ii) Mental disability in children, (iii) Bleeding gums, (iv) Tooth decay
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
• (B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
• (C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
• (D) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

Q6. Recently, Indian Space Research Organisation has launched weather satellite ‘INSAT-3DS’ from:

• (A) PSLV-F58
• (B) GSLV-F13
• (C) PSLV-F59
• (D) GSLV-F14

Q7. Recently, Sikkim has started the ‘Inspires’ programme with whose cooperation?

• (A) IMF
• (B) WEF
• (C) WB
• (D) WTO

Q8. What is the length of recently opened Mumbai Trans Harbour Sea Link?

• (A) 20.8 km
• (B) 21.8 km
• (C) 16.8 km
• (D) 17.8 km

Q9. Sela tunnel connects the

• (A) Darbuk and Shyok
• (B) Tezpur and Tawang
• (C) Chisumle and Demchok
• (D) Lahaul and Kinnaur

Q10. Longest railway tunnel in India exists between the stations:

• (A) Khadi and Sumbad
• (B) Silkyara and Badkot
• (C) Banihal and Qazigund
• (D) Chenani and Nashri

Q11. How many Grand Slam the oldest champion Rohan Bopanna in men’s tennis have won?

• (A) 16
• (B) 12
• (C) 02
• (D) 06

Q12. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Town in News): (a) Aurangabad, (b) Ambikapur, (c) Lothal, (d) Kushinagar
List-II (State): (i) Chhattisgarh, (ii) Gujrat, (iii) Uttar Pradesh, (iv) Maharashtra
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
• (B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
• (C) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
• (D) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

Q13. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I (Year): (a) 2013, (b) 2015, (c) 2017, (d) 2024
List-II (Nitish Kumar Swaps): (i) Dumped RJD, Congress and Left, (ii) Back in NDA, (iii) Quit NDA due to Modi’s elevation as PM face, (iv) Fought Bihar poll in alliance with RJD, Congress and Left
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
• (B) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
• (C) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
• (D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Q14. Is not a member of New Development Bank (as of May, 2024).

• (A) Bangladesh
• (B) UAE
• (C) India
• (D) Qatar

Q15. The theme of (2023) was “Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam” (“One Earth. One Family One Future).

• (A) India-East Asia Summit
• (B) India-ASEAN Summit
• (C) India’s G-20 Presidency
• (D) India’s SCO Presidency

Q16. Joint exercise “Mitra Shakti” was held in Pune in November, 2023.

• (A) India-Bangladesh
• (B) India-Sri Lanka
• (C) India-Iran
• (D) India-Thailand

Q17. India and European Free Trade Association signed (March 2024) a Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA), which one of the following countries is not part of the agreement?

• (A) Sweden
• (B) Norway
• (C) Switzerland
• (D) Liechtenstein

Q18. According to SIPRI Report (March 2024), continues to be the world largest arms importer (2019-2023).

• (A) India
• (B) US
• (C) Russia
• (D) China

Q19. The………..of Indian Constitution deals with Uniform Civil Code.

• (A) Article 41
• (B) Article 44
• (C) Article 51
• (D) Article 54

Q20. …….is a tool to get feedback on MGNREGA Assets from citizens.

• (A) Janvishwas Mobile App
• (B) Janmanrega Mobile App
• (C) Jaldoot Manrega Mobile App
• (D) Janunnati Mobile App.

Q21. According to 2011 census, consider the following statements regarding Hamirpur district:
Statement-I: Hamirpur district ranks 2nd in terms of population density in the state.
Statement-II: Hamirpur’s population density is 594 persons per sq km.
Choose the correct option:

• (A) Both Statements are correct
• (B) Only Statement I is correct
• (C) Only Statement II is correct
• (D) Both Statements are incorrect

Q22. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: The Social Progress Index (SPI) has three dimensions: Basic Human Needs, Foundations of Wellbeing and Opportunity.
Statement-II: Himachal Pradesh has been ranked 9th as per SPI 2022 and attained Tier-II status.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q23. Arrange the following districts in descending order as per the number of self help groups formed during 2023-24:
(1) Chamba
(2) Kangra
(3) Hamirpur
(4) Mandi
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
• (B) (2), (1), (4), (3)
• (C) (4), (2), (3), (1)
• (D) (3), (2), (4), (1)

Q24. Consider the following statements:
(1) In June 2019, the Minister of Power announced that India has become a power surplus country, with no shortage of electricity or coal.
(2) Currently, India produces a majority of its energy from renewable sources.
(3) India’s per capita power consumption was 1,149 kWh as on March 31, 2018.
(4) PPAs are bilateral contracts between the procurers (discoms) and the generators (power plants).
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1) and (3) only
• (B) (2) and (3) only
• (C) (1) and (2) only
• (D) (3) and (4) only

Q25. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Agriculture scheme): (a) Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana, (b) Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana, (c) Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture, (d) Kisan Credit Card
List-II (Year of launching): (i) 2014-15, (ii) 2016, (iii) 2007-08, (iv) 1998-99
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
• (B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
• (C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
• (D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

Q26. Normal Range of breathing rate per minute in an average adult person at rest is:

• (A) 9-12
• (B) 15-18
• (C) 21-24
• (D) 30-33

Q27. Which instrument measures the distance travelled by Automobiles?

• (A) Speedometer
• (B) Barometer
• (C) Lactometer
• (D) Odometer

Q28. Which of the following diseases is caused due to deficiency of Vitamin D?

• (A) Beri- Beri
• (B) Anaemia
• (C) Goitre
• (D) Rickets

Q29. Which of the following is not a part of pistil?

• (A) Stigma
• (B) Ovary
• (C) Style
• (D) Petal

Q30. Which of the following waves are used in SONAR?

• (A) Infrasonic Waves
• (B) Radio Waves
• (C) Audible Sound Waves
• (D) Ultrasonic Waves

Q31. On which of the following phenomena Kaleidoscope is based?

• (A) Refraction
• (B) Dispersion
• (C) Reflection
• (D) Scattering

Q32. Which of the following will not undergo Sublimation?

• (A) Camphor
• (B) Ammonium chloride
• (C) Iodine
• (D) Sodium chloride

Q33. Which of the following metals is in liquid form at room temperature?

• (A) Sodium
• (B) Potassium
• (C) Mercury
• (D) Gold

Q34. Which of the following organelles is known as the powerhouse of the animal cell?

• (A) Lysosomes
• (B) Vacuoles
• (C) Mitochondria
• (D) Golgi Apparatus

Q35. Which of the following reptilia has four-chambered heart?

• (A) Snakes
• (B) Lizards
• (C) Turtles
• (D) Crocodiles

Q36. An object weighs 60 newton when measured on the surface of the earth. What would be its weight when measured on the surface of the moon?

• (A) 5 newton
• (B) 10 newton
• (C) 6 newton
• (D) 7.5 newton

Q37. Which of the following is not a member of the Solar System?

• (A) An asteroid
• (B) Meteors
• (C) A constellation
• (D) A comet

Q38. Internal fertilisation occurs:

• (A) In female body
• (B) Outside female body
• (C) In male body
• (D) Outside male body

Q39. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: Air in motion is called wind.
Statement-II: Oxygen supports burning and is necessary for living organisms.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
• (B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
• (C) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect
• (D) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct

Q40. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: White light is composed of seven colours.
Statement-II: A real image cannot be obtained on a screen.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
• (B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
• (C) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect
• (D) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct

Q41. India got re-elected to the UN Human Rights Council for ( 2022-2024).

• (A) 2nd Term
• (B) 4th Term
• (C) 6th Term
• (D) 8th Term

Q42. Shri Kishor Makwana is the Chairman (as of May, 2024) of National Commission for ———–

• (A) Scheduled Caste
• (B) Scheduled Tribe
• (C) Women
• (D) Transgender

Q43. Pravasi Bharatiya Divas is celebrated onevery year (since 2003).

• (A) 9th January
• (B) 19th March
• (C) 19th April
• (D) 29th June

Q44. As per the constitution:
Statement-I: “Village” means a village specified by the Governor by public Notification.
Statement-II: “Gram Sabha” means a body consisting of persons registered in the electoral roll relating to village.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
• (B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
• (C) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect
• (D) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct

Q45. Arrange the following in chronological order (as given in Constitution of India):
(1) Fundamental Duties
(2) Citizenship
(3) Emergency Provisions
(4) The Panchayats

• (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
• (B) (2), (1), (4), (3)
• (C) (3), (1), (2), (4)
• (D) (4), (2), (3), (1)

Q46. Consider the given four statements and choose the correct answer from the given options. (SAARC Centres and place it is located):
(1) SAARC Documentation Centre, New Delhi
(2) SAARC Information Centre, Colombo
(3) SAARC Energy Centre, Islamabad
(4) SAARC Cultural Centre, Dhaka

• (A) (1) and (3) only
• (B) (2) and (3) only
• (C) (1) and (2) only
• (D) (2) and (4) only

Q47. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given options:
List-I (The Commission): (a) National Commission for Women, (b) Himachal Pradesh Public Service Commission, (c) Union Public Service Commission, (d) National Commission for Scheduled Tribe
List-II (Established): (1) 1926, (2) 1992, (3) 1971, (4) 2024

• (A) (3) (1) (4) (2)
• (B) (1) (4) (3) (2)
• (C) (4) (3) (1) (2)
• (D) (2) (3) (1) (4)

Q48. Houthi rebels are based out of:

• (A) Eritrea
• (B) Egypt
• (C) Yemen
• (D) Djibouti

Q49. The Globe and Mail’ is the most authoritative daily of:

• (A) Israel
• (B) Canada
• (C) Ukraine
• (D) Russia

Q50. Which country will hast the G-20 in 2024 ?

• (A) Indonesia
• (B) Brazil
• (C) Russia
• (D) South Africa

Q51. 16th World Social Forum Conference held at:

• (A) Dhaka
• (B) Kathmandu
• (C) New Delhi
• (D) Bangkok

Q52. What is the theme of International Women’s Day in 2024 ?

• (A) Encouraging Inclusion
• (B) Investing in Women’s Empowerment-Driving progress
• (C) Violence against women
• (D) Gender Mainstreaming

Q53. Wassenaar Arrangement Secretariat is located at:

• (A) Warsaw
• (B) Vienna
• (C) Paris
• (D) Bern

Q54. World Soil Day is celebrated on:

• (A) December 05
• (B) April 22
• (C) March 22
• (D) March 23

Q55. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: Ethiopia is among China’s best friend in Africa.
Statement-II: Ethiopia is a landlocked country in Africa.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
• (B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
• (C) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect
• (D) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct

Q56. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: Norway is not a EFTA member state.
Statement-II: Puntland is an autonomous part of Ethiopia.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
• (B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
• (C) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect
• (D) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct

Q57. Arrange the following power projects of Pakistan from north to south under China-Pakistan Economic Corridor:
(1) Tharparkar
(2) Bahawalpur
(3) Sahiwal
(4) Karot
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
• (B) (4), (3), (2), (1)
• (C) (1) (3), (2), (4)
• (D) (2), (4), (1), (3)

Q58. Arrange the following in chronological order since enforcement :
(1) Cartagena Protocol
(2) Convention on Biological Diversity
(3) Paris Agreement
(4) Nagoya Protocol
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
• (B) (2), (1), (4), (3)
• (C) (4), (3), (2), (1)
• (D) (1), (3), (2), (4)

Q59. Consider the following statements:
(1) Mount Morapi, the most active volcano recently erupted in Japan.
(2) Water and Heritage Shield has been awarded to Sipapu dome located in Arizonn, USA.
(3) Honiara is a key port in the West Indies Islands.
(4) Solomon islands has become a focal point in the diplomatic tussle between China and USA.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1) and (2) only
• (B) (3) and (4) only
• (C) (1) and (4) only
• (D) (2) and (4) only

Q60. Consider the following statements:
(1) Yuddhabhyas is a joint military exercise between India and China.
(2) Tawang sector is a North-Western region of Arunachal Pradesh.
(3) India and China troops clashed along the yellow river in Tawang sector in Arunachal Pradesh.
(4) China has constructed several dams on Tsangpo and can use water as a geo-strategic weapon.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (2) and (4) only
• (B) (1) and (2) only
• (C) (3) and (4) only
• (D) (1) and (3) only

Q61. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Pass): (a) Mana La, (b) Shipki La, (c) Nathu La, (d) Thang La
List-II (State/UT): (i) Himachal Pradesh, (ii) Sikkim, (iii) Uttarakhand, (iv) Ladakh
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
• (B) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
• (C) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
• (D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Q62. What is the recurrence interval of drought in Western Rajasthan?

• (A) Once in 15 years
• (B) Once in 10 years
• (C) Once in 5 years
• (D) Once in 2.5 years

Q63. Which of the following states of India has the highest area under ravines?

• (A) Madhya Pradesh
• (B) Rajasthan
• (C) Uttar Pradesh
• (D) Gujarat

Q64. Which of the following civilizations was destructed by tsunamis?

• (A) Ancient Egypt Civilization
• (B) Mesopotamia Civilization
• (C) Minon Civilization
• (D) Chinese Civilization

Q65. When tidal waves dash along the coast and cause heavy damage to soil is called as :

• (A) Badland topography
• (B) Sheet erosion
• (C) Sea erosion
• (D) Chos erosion

Q66. Which of the following is not a man-made disaster?

• (A) Water pollution
• (B) Dam failure
• (C) Drought
• (D) Smoking

Q67. Arrange the following disasters in chronological order:
(1) Leh Cloudburst
(2) Uttarakhand disaster
(3) Kashmir floods
(4) Mumbai floods.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (4), (1), (2), (3)
• (B) (1), (4), (3), (2)
• (C) (2), (4), (1), (3)
• (D) (1), (2), (4), (3)

Q68. Consider the following statements:
(1) Chennai had a series of extreme precipitation events in 2013
(2) Flood forecasting in India was started in 1958
(3) Mumbai witnessed an unprecedented 944 mm rainfall on July 26-27, 2005
(4) The intensity of rainfall in India is likely to increase by 5-10 cm per day
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1) and (2) only
• (B) (2) and (3) only
• (C) (3) and (4) only
• (D) (2) and (4) only

Q69. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Landslide Process): (a) Permeability, (b) Scour, (c) Thawing, (d) Excavation
List-II (Cause): (i) Man-made causes, (ii) Morphological causes, (iii) Ground causes, (iv) Physical causes
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
• (B) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
• (C) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
• (D) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

Q70. In which year the Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Electric (and Hybrid) Vehicles (FAME) scheme was started in India?

• (A) 2015
• (B) 2016
• (C) 2017
• (D) 2018

Q71. Who was the Chairman of the Standing Committee on Labour, Textiles and Skill Development which presented its report on National Policy on Child Labour- An Assessment’ on December 20, 2023?

• (A) Jagdish Bhagwati
• (B) Bhartruhari Mahtab
• (C) Arvind Pangaria
• (D) Kaushik Basu

Q72. What percentage of its crude oil consumption India imported in 2022-23 ?

• (A) 57 percent
• (B) 67 percent
• (C) 87 percent
• (D) 77 percent

Q73. Which of the following pesticides has largest market share in India?

• (A) Insecticides
• (B) Fungicides
• (C) Herbicides
• (D) Bio-pesticides

Q74. What is the contribution of Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) countries to India’s total trade ?

• (A) One-fifth
• (B) One-sixth
• (C) One-seventh
• (D) One-eighth

Q75. Which is India’s largest trading port by volume of cargo handled?

• (A) Mumbai Port
• (B) Chennai Port
• (C) Kandla Port
• (D) Visakhapatnam Port

Q76. Which of the following is the highest decision-making body in India for monetary policy ?

• (A) Finance Ministry
• (B) Reserve Bank of India
• (C) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
• (D) Planning Commission

Q77. Which Indian state is known as the “Rice Bowl of India”?

• (A) Punjab
• (B) Uttar Pradesh
• (C) Kerala
• (D) Andhra Pradesh

Q78. The term “Liquidity Trap,” often discussed in macroeconomic theory, refers to a situation where :

• (A) There is excessive liquidity in the market leading to inflation
• (B) Interest rates are too low to stimulate borrowing and spending
• (C) Financial institutions face a shortage of liquidity
• (D) The central bank has lost control over monetary policy.

Q79. Which of the following is not a component of the Human Development Index (HDI) as calculated by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)?

• (A) Life expectancy at birth
• (B) Gross national income (GNI) per capita
• (C) Education index
• (D) Employment rate

Q80. The “Repo Rate” in India refers to the rate at which :

• (A) Commercial banks borrow from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
• (B) Commercial banks lend to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
• (C) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends to the government
• (D) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends to foreign central banks

Q81. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Name of Bank): (a) Asia Infrastructure Investment Bank, (b) Asian Development Bank, (c) New Development Bank, (d) JP Morgan Chase Bank
List-II (Headquarters): (i) Manila, (ii) Shanghai, (iii) New York, (iv) Beijing
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
• (B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
• (C) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
• (D) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

Q82. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Space Mission): (a) JUICE, (b) MAVEN, (c) MESSENGER, (d) ARTEMIS
List-II (Target): (i) Mars, (ii) Mercury, (iii) Moon, (iv) Jupiter
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
• (B) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
• (C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
• (D) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

Q83. The annual meeting of the World Economic Forum (2024) was held at:

• (A) Davos
• (B) Zurich
• (C) Basel
• (D) Lausanne

Q84. Arrange the following countries in succession of hosting years of G-20:
(1) India
(2) Indonesia
(3) South Africa
(4) Brazil
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
• (B) (4), (3), (2), (1)
• (C) (2), (1), (4), (3)
• (D) (2), (3), (4), (1)

Q85. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: Shinku-La tunnel will be completed by December, 2030.
Statement-II: Shinku-La tunnel will help in the movement of security forces in Sikkim.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
• (B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
• (C) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect
• (D) Statement-1 is incorrect and Statement-II is correct

Q86. Karewas in Kashmir valley are known for:

• (A) Deodar
• (B) Blue pine
• (C) Juniper
• (D) Cinchona

Q87. Lower Ganga Canal takes off from:

• (A) Kankhal (Haridwar)
• (B) Narora (Bulandshahar)
• (C) Hathni Kund (Yamuna Nagar)
• (D) Okhla (New Delhi)

Q88. Scattered settlements are commonly found in

• (A) Bhangar
• (B) Khadar
• (C) Duars
• (D) Bhabar

Q89. Which of the following languages of India does not pertain to Austric languages?

• (A) Santhali
• (B) Mundari
• (C) Korwa
• (D) Bugheli

Q90. What was the density of population in India in the year 1951 ?

• (A) 117 persons/km²
• (B) 103 persons/km²
• (C) 142 persons/km²
• (D) 325 persons/km²

Q91. How much percentage of the total land area of India receives above 200 cm of rainfall ?

• (A) 20 percent
• (B) 24 percent
• (C) 11 percent
• (D) 15 percent

Q92. Blinding storms are not common in:

• (A) Rajasthan
• (B) Himachal Pradesh
• (C) Haryana
• (D) Punjab

Q93. Wind blown unproductive material is called as :

• (A) Kankara
• (B) Loess
• (C) Regur
• (D) Kallar

Q94. Which of the following passes does not provide a passage between India and Myanmar ?

• (A) Hpungan Pass
• (B) Chaukan Pass
• (C) Dihang Pass
• (D) Yonggyap Pass

Q95. Central Poultry Performance Testing Centre is located at:

• (A) Gurugram
• (B) Chandigarh
• (C) Mumbai
• (D) Bengaluru

Q96. Dalli-Rajhara range of iron ore reserves is located in:

• (A) Jharkhand
• (B) Chhattisgarh
• (C) Karnataka
• (D) Odisha

Q97. Aliabet is famous for the production of:

• (A) Coal
• (B) Iron ore
• (C) Mineral oil
• (D) Mica

Q98. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: A dependable source of uranium occurs in the monazite sands deposited along the coast in Kerala.
Statement-II: Uranium occurs in the form of pegmatites in Rajasthan.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

• (A) Both statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q99. Arrange the following rivers of India from west to east :
(1) Damodar River
(2) Betwa River
(3) Luni River
(4) Son River
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (2), (1), (4), (3)
• (B) (4), (3), (1), (2)
• (C) (1) (2) (4), (3)
• (D) (3), (2), (4), (1)

Q100. Consider the following statements:
(1) Magnetite is known as black ore
(2) Siderite is known as iron carbonate
(3) Odisha produces over 75 percent iron ore of India
(4) Limonite is the most important iron ore available in India
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (3) and (4) only
• (B) (2) and (4) only
• (C) (1) and (3) only
• (D) (1) and (2) only

Q101. The “Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act” in India aims to :

• (A) Control inflation through fiscal policy
• (B) Ensure transparency in government expenditure
• (C) Limit the government’s fiscal deficit
• (D) Promote foreign direct investment (FDI)

Q102. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: India’s Current Account Deficit (CAD) has narrowed to 1.9% of GDP in fiscal 2023.
Statement-II: Foreign exchange reserves have nearly doubled to US $568 billion in fiscal 2023.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q103. Arrange the following schemes in ascending order as per the year in which they were launched:
(1) Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme
(2) Integrated Rural Development Programme
(3) Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
(4) Jawahar Rozgar Yojana
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
• (B) (2), (1), (4), (3)
• (C) (4), (2), (3), (1)
• (D) (3), (2), (4), (1)

Q104. Consider the following statements:
(1) Historically, nominal GDP growth rate has been lower than interest rates
(2) Outstanding liabilities of the general government are estimated to be 66.5% in 2022-23
(3) In 2022-23, GDP is estimated to grow at 7% in real terms
(4) In 2022-23, inflationary expectations of businesses and households have moderated.
Choose the correct statements from the options given below:

• (A) (1) and (3) only
• (B) (2) and (3) only
• (C) (1) and (2) only
• (D) (3) and (4) only

Q105. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Act/Organization): (a) Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, (b) Foreign Exchange Management Act, (c) WTO, (d) Competition Act
List-II (Promulgated year): (i) 1973, (ii) 1999, (iii) 2002, (iv) 1995
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
• (B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
• (C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
• (D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

Q106. Power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between Centre and States falls in which category?

• (A) Original Jurisdiction
• (B) Appellate Jurisdiction
• (C) Advisory Jurisdiction
• (D) Constitutional Jurisdiction

Q107. Who was the Chairman of First Backward Classes Commission ?

• (A) Babu Jagjivan Ram
• (B) Kaka Kalelkar
• (C) B.P. Mandal
• (D) Hansraj Gangaram Ahir

Q108. Power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court is vested in whom?

• (A) President of India
• (B) Parliament
• (C) Chief Justice of Supreme Court of India
• (D) Law Commission

Q109. With reference to Indian Polity, which statement is correct ?

• (A) NITI Aayog is accountable to Parliament
• (B) President can issue ordinance only when either of two houses of Parliament is not in session
• (C) Minimum age for appointment of judge in Supreme Court is 40 years
• (D) National Development Council is constituted with Union Finance Minister and all Chief Ministers.

Q110. Which one of the following Articles of Indian Constitution says that executive power of the state shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the union?

• (A) Article 257
• (B) Article 258
• (C) Article 355
• (D) Article 356

Q111. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the houses of Parliament, it has to be passed with what kind of majority?

• (A) A simple majority of members present and voting
• (B) Three-fourth majority of members present and voting
• (C) Two-third majority of members present and voting
• (D) Absolute majority of the house

Q112. Purpose of adjournment motion in Indian Parliament stands for what?

• (A) To allow discussion on a matter of urgent public interest
• (B) To let opposition member collect informations from ministers
• (C) To allow reduction of specific amount in demand for grants
• (D) To postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate behaviour on the part of some members.

Q113. Indian parliamentary system is different from British parliamentary system on which court ?

• (A) It has both real and nominal executive
• (B) It is based on system of collective responsibility
• (C) It has bi-cameral legislation
• (D) It has system of Judicial Review

Q114. The ideal of ‘welfare state’ in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in which part

• (A) Directive Principles of State Policy
• (B) Fundamental Rights
• (C) Fundamental Duties
• (D) Preamble

Q115. Which one of the schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the names of states and specifies their territories ?

• (A) Fourth
• (B) Third
• (C) Second
• (D) First

Q116. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?

• (A) Liberty of expression
• (B) Liberty of belief
• (C) Economic liberty
• (D) Liberty of thought

Q117. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: The disqualification criteria for a Member of Parliament and a Member of Legislative Assembly are laid down in Articles 102 and 191 of the Indian Constitution respectively.
Statement-II: As per latest provisions of defection law enables a party to merger with another party if at least one-thirds of the legislators of the party are in favour of such a merger.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q118. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: Public Accounts Committee is the oldest parliamentary committee.
Statement-II: Public Accounts Committee, Estimates Committee and Committee on Public Undertaking are all Financial Committees of Indian Parliament.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

Q119. Put the formation of the following states in chronological order:
(1) Jharkhand
(2) Haryana
(3) Uttarakhand
(4) Chhattisgarh
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
• (B) (2), (3), (4), (1)
• (C) (1), (4), (2), (3)
• (D) (2), (4), (3), (1)

Q120. Consider the following statements:
(1) Money Bill has to be passed by each house of the Parliament separately and Rajya Sabha also has power to amend it.
(2) Constitutional amendment can be introduced in either house of Parliament
(3) High Court cannot declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid
(4) Parliament shall consist of President and two houses.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1) and (2) only
• (B) (2) and (3) only
• (C) (2) and (4) only
• (D) (4) and (1) only.

Q121. Match the following:
List-I (Authors): (a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak, (b) Aurobindo Ghosh, (c) Ram Manohar Lohiya, (d) M.N. Roy
List-II (Books): (i) The Future of Indian Politics, (ii) Interval During Politics, (iii) The Orion, (iv) The Life Divine
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
• (B) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
• (C) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
• (D) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

Q122. What term is Gandhiji used for social work to express a special approach to rebuild man and the nation ?

• (A) Constructive Programme
• (B) Non-violence
• (C) Social transformation
• (D) Satyagraha

Q123. As per Gandhiji what is the powerful medium for social change and development ?

• (A) Non-violence
• (B) Satyagraha
• (C) National Movement
• (D) Education

Q124. What was considered as moral elevation by Gandhiji ?

• (A) Village Sanitation
• (B) Total Prohibition
• (C) Basic Education
• (D) None of these

Q125. Kasturba Memorial Trust which aimed at training rural women for the various national tasks of Rural reconstruction had headquarters at:

• (A) Indore
• (B) Agra
• (C) Delhi
• (D) Allahabad

Q126. Binwa Hydel Project is located in:

• (A) Kangra
• (B) Mandi
• (C) Kullu
• (D) Shimla

Q127. Trouts found in rivers of Himachal Pradesh are the famous variety of :

• (A) Fish
• (B) Crab
• (C) Prawn
• (D) Turtle

Q128. Where is the fruit demonstration farm located in Himachal Pradesh ?

• (A) Saloh
• (B) Ghanari
• (C) Haroli
• (D) Amb

Q129. Which of the following glaciers is not a part of Chandra Valley ?

• (A) Racha
• (B) Boulnag
• (C) Shili
• (D) Miyar

Q130. Bhakli Khad is a tributary of which river in Himachal Pradesh ?

• (A) Sutlej
• (B) Yamuna
• (C) Beas
• (D) Chenab

Q131. Uhl is a tributary of:

• (A) Ravi river
• (B) Yamuna river
• (C) Beas river
• (D) Sutlej river

Q132. Which lake in Himachal Pradesh is famous for Panch Pandya Tree ?

• (A) Renuka
• (B) Khajjiar
• (C) Machial
• (D) Rewalsar

Q133. Chakki River joins Beas River near:

• (A) Palampur
• (B) Kangra
• (C) Pathankot
• (D) Mandi

Q134. Which among the following is not known for gypsum in Himachal Pradesh ?

• (A) Rajban
• (B) Bhatri
• (C) Tiler Dhar
• (D) Korga

Q135. Which among the following does not lie in the dry hill soil zone ?

• (A) Pangi
• (B) Kinnaur
• (C) Lahaul
• (D) Paonta

Q136. Which of the following is the coldest place in Himachal Pradesh?

• (A) Keylong
• (B) Shimla
• (C) Kullu
• (D) Chamba

Q137. Which among the following districts is fully located in the Shiwalik Hills ?

• (A) Kangra
• (B) Solan
• (C) Una
• (D) Sirmaur

Q138. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: Darlaghat conservation reserve was established in 1974.
Statement-II: Darlaghat conservation reserve has 67 km2 area.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct

Q139. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: Cadbury chocolates have their chocolate making plant at Rajban in Himachal Pradesh.
Statement-II: Barmana cement plant is located in Sirmaur district of Himachal Pradesh.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct

Q140. Arrange the following places of Mandi district from north to south:
(1) Jogindernagar
(2) Sarkaghat
(3) Rewalsar
(4) Sundernagar
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
• (B) (2), (3), (4), (1)
• (C) (3), (4), (1), (2)
• (D) (4), (3), (2), (1)

Q141. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I (States): (a) Telangana, (b) Odisha, (c) Maharastra, (d) Assam
List-II (Lok Sabha Seats): (i) 48, (ii) 14, (iii) 21, (iv) 17
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
• (B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
• (C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
• (D) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

Q142. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I: (a) Swami Dayanand, (b) Mahatma Gandhi, (c) Raja Ram Mohan Rai, (d) B.R. Ambedkar
List-II: (i) Sati Pratha, (ii) Annihilation of Caste, (iii) Untouchability, (iv) Arya Samaj Movement
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
• (B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
• (C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
• (D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

Q143. Women empowerment is related to:
(1) Participation in decision-making
(2) Education
(3) Divorce
(4) Employment
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1), (2) and (3) only
• (B) (2), (3) and (4) only
• (C) (1), (2) and (4) only
• (D) (3), (2) and (4) only

Q144. Conventionalized mode of social behaviour and thought is known as:

• (A) Folkways
• (B) Tradition
• (C) Mores
• (D) None of these

Q145. Gender disparities in nutrition is responsible for:

• (A) Poor health of the girls
• (B) Anemia among girls
• (C) Death among girls
• (D) All of these

Q146. The National Commission for Women was established in India in the year :

• (A) 1990
• (B) 1991
• (C) 1992
• (D) 1995

Q147. The journal “Indian Sociologist” was founded by:

• (A) Madan Lal Dhingra
• (B) Ram Manohar Lohia
• (C) M.N. Roy
• (D) Shyamji Krishna Varma

Q148. Who was the first President of “Indian Home Rule League” established by Bal Gangadhar Tilak in 1916 ?

• (A) N. C. Kelkar
• (B) G.S. Khapde
• (C) George Arundale
• (D) Joseph Baptista

Q149. Who wrote “Devi Chaudhurani”?

• (A) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
• (B) Dinabandhu Mitra
• (C) Munshi Premchand
• (D) Rabindranath Tagore

Q150. Who established “Dawn Society” ?

• (A) Rabindranath Tagore
• (B) Derijiyo
• (C) Satish Chandra Mukherjee
• (D) George Yule

Q151. In which year was “Progressive Writers Association” formed?

• (A) 1934
• (B) 1936
• (C) 1938
• (D) 1939

Q152. Who among the following was the last Secretary of State for British India?

• (A) Lord Pathick Lawrence
• (B) Lord Stanley
• (C) Lord Listowel
• (D) Samuel Hoare

Q153. ”Korra Mallaya” was the tribal chief of the Salaur reign (Vishakhapatnam). In which year, he rebelled against Britishers?

• (A) 1892 A.D
• (B) 1895 A.D
• (C) 1900 A.D
• (D) 1902 A.D

Q154. In which year was “Tana Bhagat Movement” started?

• (A) 1910 AD
• (B) 1912 A.D
• (C) 1914 A.D
• (D) 1917 A.D

Q155. On which date Communal Award announced by the British Prime Minister Macdonald ?

• (A) 15 August 1930
• (B) 16 August 1932
• (C) 16 August 1933
• (D) 15 August 1934

Q156. Which of the following books was not written by Lala Lajpat Rai ?

• (A) The Story of My Deportation
• (B) The Political Future of India
• (C) England’s Debt to India
• (D) The Foundation of Indian Culture

Q157. Who was the President of “All India States People Conference” during 1946-47 ?

• (A) J. I. Nehru
• (B) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
• (C) V. P. Menon
• (D) Rajendra Prasad

Q158. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: Bhagat Singh and B.K. Dutt throw a bomb in the central legislative assembly on 08 March 1928.
Statement-II: Bhagat Singh, Rajguru and Sukhdev were executed on 23 March 1931.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q159. Arrange these Anglo/Non-Indian Presidents of Indian National Congress in chronological order:
(1) Henry Cotton
(2) William Wedderburn
(3) George Yule
(4) Alfred Webb
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (2), (3), (1), (4)
• (B) (2), (3), (4), (1)
• (C) (3), (2), (1), (4)
• (D) (3), (2), (4), (1)

Q160. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: The modern educated Indians did not support the Revolt of 1857 A.D.
Statement-II: All India Women’s Conference was established in 1928.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q161. Arrange the chronological sequence of the following Kangra Kings:
(1) Raja Triloka Chand
(2) Raja Hari Chand I
(3) Raja Megh Chand
(4) Raja Bidhi Chand
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (2), (3), (1), (4)
• (B) (3), (2), (4), (1)
• (C) (2), (3), (4), (1)
• (D) (3), (4), (2), (1)

Q162. Arrange the chronological sequence of the following Kullu Kings:
(1) Raja Man Singh
(2) Raja Jagat Singh
(3) Raja Tedhi Singh
(4) Raja Ajit Singh
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (4), (2), (1), (3)
• (B) (2), (1), (3), (4)
• (C) (1), (2), (4), (3)
• (D) (3), (4), (2), (1)

Q163. Consider the following statements:
(1) ‘Dagshai Cantonment’ was founded in 1843.
(2) Mughal Emperor Jahangir conquered Kangra fort in 1622 A.D.
(3) Raja Karam Prakash of Sirmaur established Nahan Town.
(4) Raja ‘Byang-Chub-Semspa’ of Ladakh built “Tabo monastery’ in South Spiti.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1) and (4) only
• (B) (2) and (3) only
• (C) (3) and (4) only
• (D) (2) and (4) only

Q164. Consider the following statements:
(1) In the Lahuli Tribal community of Himachal Pradesh, arranged marriage is called “Kumai Bhagaton”.
(2) The Supreme Deity of the Gaddis tribes is Lord Shiva.
(3) The ‘Janekang or Janetong’ is a form of marriage prevalent in Kinner tribe of Himachal Pradesh means- arranged marriage.
(4) The majority of Kinner tribal group in Himachal Pradesh practise Jainism.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1) and (3) only
• (B) (2) and (3) only
• (C) (2) and (4) only
• (D) (1) and (2) only

Q165. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Principality/Reign): (a) Jaswan, (b) Balsan, (c) Dhadi, (d) Siba
List-II (Offshoot of): (i) Guler, (ii) Tharoch, (iii) Sirmaur, (iv) Kangra
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
• (B) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
• (C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
• (D) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

Q166. In Himachal Pradesh Budget 2023-24, the youth of the state will be provided subsidy to set-up solar power projects on their own/leased land. The subsidy rate is :

• (A) 50 percent
• (B) 45 percent
• (C) 40 percent
• (D) 35 percent

Q167. To increase the income of milk producers, which measure will be used by the Himachal Pradesh Government ?

• (A) Provide conditional grants
• (B) Levy milk cess
• (C) Provide subsidy on cattles
• (D) Loan waiver scheme

Q168. In 2022-23, the growth rate of manufacturing sector in H.P. is estimated at percent over the previous year (at constant prices).

• (A) 6.9 percent
• (B) 7 percent
• (C) 7.5 percent
• (D) 7.2 percent

Q169. What is the target of HPSHIVA project?

• (A) To grow cash crops on 6000 acres of land by 2028
• (B) To grow cash crops on 7000 acres of land by 2030
• (C) To grow cash crops on 8000 acres of land by 2032
• (D) To grow cash crops on 9000 acres of land by 2030

Q170. What is the target area for paddy production in HP in 2023-24 ?

• (A) 68.46 thousand hectares
• (B) 66.17 thousand hectares
• (C) 88.16 thousand hectares
• (D) 67.30 thousand hectares

Q171. How much subsidy is provided by HP Government for the construction of Bore wells and shallow wells ?

• (A) 40 percent
• (B) 50 percent
• (C) 30 percent
• (D) 33 percent

Q172. Which crop has highest productivity in HP in 2022-23 ?

• (A) Wheat
• (B) Barley
• (C) Gram
• (D) Rabi pulses

Q173. Which of the following districts had lowest literacy rate as per census 2011 in H.P. ?

• (A) Kangra
• (B) Mandi
• (C) Shimla
• (D) Solan

Q174. What is the objective of Sukh- Ashray Sahayata Kosh in H.P. ?

• (A) To help people above the age of 60
• (B) To help people above the age of 70
• (C) To help people above the age of 65
• (D) To help the needy children and youth

Q175. Which of the following statements regarding Himachal’s health sector is incorrect?

• (A) The Neonatal Mortality Rate in Himachal is 14.9 per 1000 live births, according to National Family and Health Survey (2019-21).
• (B) As of December 2023, there are 580 Primary Health Centres across Himachal
• (C) Life expectancy at birth in Himachal has been on an increasing trend over the years and is currently higher than the national average
• (D) The institutional delivery rate in Himachal is 88.2% according to National Family and Health Survey (2019-21).

Q176. Sethu Project in Kangra, which was commissioned in 2023, has the capacity of:

• (A) 2 MW
• (B) 1MW
• (C) 1.3 MW
• (D) 39MW

Q177. Which is the highest peak in Himachal Pradesh ?

• (A) Mount Everest
• (B) Nanda Devi
• (C) K-2
• (D) Reo Purgyil

Q178. HIMSWAN is a secure network, which provides secure network connectivity to all State Government Departments up to block level in Himachal Pradesh. What does HIMSWAN stand for?

• (A) Himachal Pradesh Secure Width Arena Network
• (B) Himachal Pradesh State Wide Area Network
• (C) Himachal Pradesh Secure WiFi Area Network
• (D) Himachal Pradesh Simple and Wall Area Network

Q179. For FY 2023-24, the forestry and logging sub-sector accounted for what percentage of the total Gross State Value Added (GSVA) in Himachal?

• (A) 0.75%
• (B) 1.25%
• (C) 3.74%
• (D) 5.13%

Q180. What is the share of secondary sector in Gross Value Added in Himachal Pradesh during 2023-24 ?

• (A) 40.04 per cent
• (B) 41.98 per cent
• (C) 43.07 per cent
• (D) 39.06 per cent

Q181. Arrange the following peaks of Himachal Pradesh from lowest to highest elevation:
(1) Pin Parbati
(2) Deo Tibba
(3) Umasila
(4) Churdhar
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (2), (4), (1), (3)
• (B) (4), (1), (3), (2)
• (C) (3), (4), (1), (2)
• (D) (2), (3), (1), (4)

Q182. Consider the following statements:
(1) Una district is the hottest place in Himachal Pradesh.
(2) The coldest place in Himachal Pradesh is Shimla.
(3) Long moon nights season pertains to Kullu district of Himachal Pradesh.
(4) Rainiest district in Himachal Pradesh is Kangra.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (2) and (4) only
• (B) (2) and (3) only
• (C) (1) and (3) only
• (D) (1) and (4) only

Q183. Consider the following statements:
(1) NH-505 is the longest National Highway of Himachal Pradesh.
(2) NH-907 is the smallest National Highway in Himachal Pradesh.
(3) Kinnaur has the least road length in Himachal Pradesh.
(4) Lahaul and Spiti has the highest road density in Himachal Pradesh.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (2) and (4) only
• (B) (3) and (4) only
• (C) (2) and (3) only
• (D) (1) and (2) only

Q184. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Location): (a) Baddi, (b) Parwanoo, (c) Paonta Sahib, (d) Amb
List-II (Industry): (i) Automobiles, (ii) Chemicals, (iii) Light Engineering, (iv) Textiles
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
• (B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
• (C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
• (D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

Q185. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Project): (a) Bhaba, (b) Giri, (c) Bassi, (d) Baner
List-II (District): (i) Sirmaur, (ii) Kangra, (iii) Kinnaur, (iv) Mandi
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
• (B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
• (C) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
• (D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

Q186. Lord Ellenborough was the Governor General of India from 1842-1844. Where was his place of residence in Shimla ?

• (A) Bentinck Castle
• (B) Auckland House
• (C) Kennedy House
• (D) Peterhoff

Q187. In which year was the Gaiety Theatre in Shimla opened ?

• (A) 1901
• (B) 1876
• (C) 1887
• (D) 1850

Q188. Which of the following led the “Dumha Rebellion” of 1859 ?

• (A) Fateh Singh
• (B) Bhagmal Sautha
• (C) Raghunath Singh
• (D) Kanhiya Singh

Q189. Who was the king of Mandi during the Farmer’s movement of Mandi, which took place in 1909 A.D.?

• (A) Zalim Sen
• (B) Jogender Sen
• (C) Bhimsen
• (D) Bhawani Sen

Q190. In which year “Prem Pracharini Sabha” of Dhami renamed as Dhami Prajamandal?

• (A) 1937 A.D.
• (B) 1938 A.D.
• (C) 1939 A.D.
• (D) 1941 A.D.

Q191. ”Topi Lani” is a form of marriage prevalent in which of the following tribes?

• (A) Gaddi tribe
• (B) Pangwals tribe
• (C) Kinner tribe
• (D) Lahuli tribe

Q192. Which of the following Mandi ruler built “Bhootnath Temple” at Mandi?

• (A) Hari Sen
• (B) Dilawar Sen
• (C) Narayan Sen
• (D) Ajber Sen

Q193. Who was the first Vice President of Himalayan Hill States Regional Council

• (A) Swami Poornananda
• (B) Pandit Padam Dev
• (C) Indra Narayan
• (D) Shyamchand Negi

Q194. Which of the following was the last king of “Guler State” ?

• (A) Bhup Singh
• (B) Raj Singh
• (C) Prakash Singh
• (D) Man Singh

Q195. In which year, Kangra ruler Ghamand Chand was appointed Nazim or Governor of the Jalandhar Doab by the Ahmed Shah Durrani ?

• (A) 1757 A.D.
• (B) 1758 A.D.
• (C) 1759 A.D.
• (D) 1760 A.D.

Q196. In Tarikh-i-Farishta, Farishta refers Nagarkot as:

• (A) Naggar
• (B) Trigarta
• (C) Bheem
• (D) None of these

Q197. In which year “Pajhota Kisan Sabha” was formed?

• (A) 1940 A.D.
• (B) 1941 A.D.
• (C) 1942 A.D.
• (D) 1943 A.D.

Q198. Who was appointed first Lieutenant Governor of Himachal Pradesh in 1952 ?

• (A) Yashwant Parmar
• (B) M.S. Himmat Singh
• (C) Padam Dev
• (D) Gauri Prasad

Q199. Consider the following statements regarding Lord Amherst :
Statement-I: He was the first Governor General who visited Shimla.
Statement-II: In 1827, he stayed with Major Kennedy, the political officer of the Shimla district at ‘Kennedy House’.
Choose the correct option:

• (A) Both Statements are correct
• (B) Only Statement I is correct
• (C) Only Statement II is correct
• (D) Both Statements are incorrect

Q200. Consider the following statements regarding the Punjab Boundary Commission:
Statement-I: The Commission was setup on 30th April 1966.
Statement-II: This two membered commission had Justice JC Shah and Sardar Hukam Singh as members.
Choose the correct option:

• (A) Both Statements are correct
• (B) Only Statement I is correct
• (C) Only Statement II is correct
• (D) Both Statements are incorrect