Q2. Which of the following is not a constituent body of National Statistics Office ?

Q8. Which of the following best explains the “Twin Balance Sheet” problem in the Indian economy?

Q9. Which of the following can cause “Stagflation”?

Q11. Which of the following best explains “Operation Twist” by RBI?

Q27. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme covers 14 sectors, with a total outlay of Rs. 1.97 lakh crore.
Statement II: The PLI scheme has achieved 100% of its targeted investment in the electronics sector by FY 2024-25.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Q28. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The National Monetisation Pipeline (NMP) aims to raise Rs. 6 lakh crore by FY 2024-25.
Statement II: The NMP includes monetisation of assets in the education sector.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Q29. Read the following statements:

Statement I: Apart from issuing currency notes, RBI regulates all commercial banks in India.
Statement II: Regulating NBFCs are not under the purview of RBI.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Q41. Arrange the following states with share of women-led MSMEs during 2024 from highest to lowest:

(1) Tamil Nadu
(2) West Bengal
(3) Telangana
(4) Karnataka

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q42. Arrange the following schemes of Government of India from newest to oldest:

(1) Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana
(2) Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats and Tangible Incomes
(3) Atal Bhujal Yojana
(4) Stand-up India Yojana

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q48. Arrange the following by the year they became operational in India’s financial sector:

(1) Real-Time Gross Settlement (RTGS)
(2) National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT)
(3) Unified Payments Interface (UPI)
(4) Account Aggregator Framework

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q49. Arrange the following monetary policy tools by the order in which RBI typically uses them to control inflation:

(1) Open Market Operations (OMO)
(2) Repo Rate Hike
(3) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) Adjustment
(4) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) Adjustment

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q50. Arrange the following items in descending order as percentage of GDP in India:

(1) Gross Fiscal Deficit
(2) Gross Domestic Capital Formation
(3) Central Government Debt
(4) Gross Tax Revenue

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q66. Consider the following statements:

(1) Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme was launched in 1996-97.
(2) Command Area Development Programme was taken up in 2014-15.
(3) Hydrology Project was launched by Government of India with the World Bank assistance in 1974-75.
(4) Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana was launched during 2015-16.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q71. Which of the following statements about India’s inflation trends in 2024 are correct?

(1) CPI inflation fell to 3.65% in August 2024.
(2) Core inflation remained above 4% throughout FY 2024-25.
(3) WPI inflation turned negative in Q1 2024-25.
(4) Food inflation was the primary driver of CPI increases.

Choose the correct statements from the options given below:

Q72. Which of the following statements about India’s startup ecosystem in 2024 are correct?

(1) India had over 1.17 lakh recognized startups.
(2) The Startup India Seed Fund Scheme disbursed Rs. 1,000 crore.
(3) Unicorn startups doubled in number since 2020.
(4) The National Startup Advisory Council was dissolved in 2024.

Choose the correct statements from the options given below:

Q90. Match the following economic policies with their launch years:

List-I:
(a) PM-KISAN
(b) Ayushman Bharat
(c) Startup India
(d) Gati Shakti

List-II:
(i) 2016
(ii) 2019
(iii) 2018
(iv) 2021

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q91. Match the following inflation metrics with their values for FY 2024-25 (April-December):

List-I:
(a) CPI Inflation (%)
(b) Food Inflation (%)
(c) Core Inflation (%)
(d) WPI Inflation (%)

List-II:
(i) 2.1
(ii) 8.4
(iii) 5.4
(iv) 3.5

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q46. Who described the Indian economy as “Bullock Cart Economy”?

Q61. Till when the Indian government has extended the Pradhan Mantri Gharib Kalyan Anna Yojana?

Q62. Economic Growth in country X will necessarily have to occur if:

Q63. Suppose, the poverty line as measured by Monthly Per Capita Expenditure is Rs. 1,000. MPCE (in Rs.) of 10 Households: State A; State B.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Head Count Ratio of State A is less than Head Count Ratio of State B.
Statement II: Poverty Gap Ratio of State A is less than Poverty Gap Ratio of State B.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Q64. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Trickle Down Theory says that let business flourish, since their profits ultimately trickle down to lower income individuals.
Statement II: Economic Theory predicts that inequality will increase during recessions and decline during economic booms.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Q65. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: As of December 2023, around 1.3 crore candidates have received training under PMKVY.
Statement II: Out of these candidates around 60 lakh individuals have been placed.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Q66. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The volume of E-way bill generation in India continues to grow steadily.
Statement II: Rail freight traffic and port cargo traffic are growing at a healthy pace.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Q67. Consider the following Health programmes and policy:

(1) The National Health Policy
(2) National Health Mission (NHM)
(3) National Rural Health Mission (NRHM)
(4) National Urban Health Mission (NUHM)

With reference to the Health programmes and policy mentioned above, in terms of their starting year which one of the following is the correct order year? Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q68. What is the correct order of various social service schemes in India according to year of origin?

(1) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
(2) Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana
(3) Rashtriy Swasthya Bima Yojana
(4) National Social Assistance Scheme

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q69. With reference to the steady decline in the mortality rate over the years, consider the following statements:

(1) Control of epidemics such as cholera and smallpox
(2) Expansion in incidence of malaria and tuberculosis
(3) Contraction of education and decreased literacy
(4) Improved sanitation and hygiene

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q71. Match List I with List II:

List I:
(a) Sandeep Shastri
(b) Kalpana Srivastava
(c) N. Neetha
(d) Mridul Eapen

List II:
(i) “Gender Demographics and Empowerment in India”
(ii) “Demographic Profile and Health Status of Older Adults in India”
(iii) “Demographic Dividend in India: Myth or Reality”
(iv) “Demographic Shift and its Impact on Indian Politics”

Q72. Arrange the following Committees in proper chronological order of their establishment:

(1) Alagh Committee
(2) Tendulkar Committee
(3) Rangarajan Committee
(4) Lakdawala Committee

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q73. Arrange the following events in proper chronological order:

(1) Mahbul-ul-Haq prepared the HDI (Human Development Index)
(2) Morris D. Morris developed the PQLI (Physical Quality of Life Index)
(3) Alkire and Foster developed the MPI (Multi-Dimensional Poverty Index)
(4) The term ‘Gross National Happiness’ coined by Bhutan’s king Jigme Singye Wangchuck

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q74. Match List I with List II:

List I:
(a) SDG 2
(b) SDG 5
(c) SDG 8
(d) SDG 10

List II:
(i) Decent Work
(ii) Zero Hunger
(iii) Gender Equality
(iv) Reduced Inequality

Q75. Match List I with List II:

List I:
(a) Chronic Poor
(b) Churning Poor
(c) Non-Poor
(d) Occasionally Poor

List II:
(i) Below the poverty line most of the time
(ii) Rich most of the time but sometimes, out of a business fluctuation become poor
(iii) Always above the poverty line
(iv) Regularly move in and out of poverty

Q76. The marginal productivity of disguised unemployed workers is:

Q8. Which organization releases the SDG India-Index, which comprehensively documents the progress made by India’s States and Union Territories towards implementing the 2030 SDG targets?

Q9. What is the correct ascending order of Indian States on the basis of the poverty headcount ratio (PHR) as per the National Multidimensional Poverty Index measured by NITI Aayog?

Q11. First comprehensive population policy was announced by Government of India on:

Q21. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Gati Shakti digital platform involves the creation of a common umbrella platform through which infrastructure projects can be planned and implemented.
Statement II: Gati Shakti Digital platform is based on twelve pillars.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Q22. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Money Mission was launched in the year 2017.
Statement II: Sweet Revolution promotes the apiculture in India.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Q28. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The theory of Unbalanced Growth was advocated by Prof. Hirschman.
Statement II: The theory of Unbalanced Growth states that investment should be first made in certain core sectors of the economy which have a high degree of complementarity. Once, the process of growth is initiated, it will spread to other sectors through forward and backward linkages.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Q29. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The percentage of the population aged 65 years and above in India as of 2021, is around 6.2% of the Indian population.
Statement II: The population growth rate in India as of 2021 is around 0.98%.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Q30. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The percentage of the population that is employed in service sector in India as of 2021 is around 32% of the Indian population.
Statement II: The percentage of the population that is employed in the industrial sector in India as of 2021 is around 30% of the Indian population.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Q42. Arrange the following schemes in chronological order from the year of launch:

(1) Make in India
(2) National Skill Development Mission
(3) Startup India
(4) Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q49. Arrange the following Schemes in proper chronological order of their implementation:

(1) Ayushman Bharat-PMJAY
(2) Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojna
(3) Pradhan Mantri Gati Shakti Yojana
(4) Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q71. With reference to the World Development Report 1993, improved health contributes to economic growth in four ways, consider the following statements:

(1) It reduces production losses caused by worker illness
(2) It decreases the enrolment of children in schools and makes them worse in learning
(3) It permits the use of natural resources that had been totally or nearly inaccessible because of disease
(4) It decreases for alternative uses resources that would otherwise have to be spent on treating illness

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q90. Match List I with List II:

List-I:
a. Critical Minimum Effort Hypothesis
b. Theory of social dualism
c. Low-level Equilibrium Trap
d. Theory of Technological Dualism

List-II:
i. Boeke
ii. Leibenstein
iii. Higgins
iv. Nelson

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q91. Match List I with List II:

List-I:
a. “Development as Freedom”
b. “Fault Lines: How Hidden Fractures Still Threaten the World Economy”
c. “India: the Emerging Giant”
d. “The Making of India: Economic Policy and Nationalism, 1947-2017”

List-II:
i. Amartya Sen
ii. Raghuram Rajan
iii. Montek Singh Ahluwalia
iv. C. Rangarajan

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q66. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: According to a world Bank working paper, extreme poverty in India dropped to 10.2% in the Pre – Covid Year of 2019 from as much as 22.5% in 2011.
Statement II: The paper uses the consumer pyramids Household survey (CPHS) to provide estimate of how poverty and inequality in India have evolved since 2011.

Q67. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Development expenditure of the Central Government does not includes defense expenditure and grants to states.
Statement II: Non-development expenditure involves interest payments and subsidies.

Q68. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Deficit financing cannot create inflation in an economy.
Statement II: If RBI reduces the cash reserve ratio, the credit creation will decline.

Q69. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Low-Income countries (LICs) and lower-middle-income countries (LMICs) have high prospective growth rates and high marginal productivities of capital.
Statement II: They should borrow, and borrow heavily, in order to finance a broad-based increase in investments…

Q70. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The average SDG Index score declined in 2021 as compared to 2020…
Statement II: Among G20 member states, the United States, Brazil and the Russian Federation exhibit most support for the 2030 Agenda and the SDGs.

Q71. Consider the following statements:

(1) If Indian economy is in equilibrium at the point where plans to save and to invest are equal, then government expenditure must be equal to government income.
(2) In pursuance with the recommendation of Narsimham Committee, the RBI has framed new guidelines to setup more foreign exchange banks.
(3) Redistribution policies geared to reduce economic inequalities include progressive tax policies.
(4) The currency convertibility concept in its original form originated in Taylors Agreement.

Q72. Consider the following statements:

(1) Gross capital formation consists of outlays on additions to the fixed assets of the economy plus gross changes in the level of inventories.
(2) Net value added at factor cost is the sum total of all the factor payments.
(3) The National Income is the total amount of income accruing to a country from economic and non-economic activities in a year time.
(4) In moving from national income to personal income we must subtract the incomes earned but not received and add incomes received but not currently earned.

Q73. Consider the following statements:

(1) The green economy could add more than 54 million jobs worldwide by 2030.
(2) World over the additional investment to avoid future pandemics is estimated to be only $15 billion a year.
(3) Over 90 percent of countries saw their HDI value drop in either 2020 or 2021.
(4) The economic gains from phasing out coal could amount to as much as 1.7 percent of global GDP every year.

Q74. Consider the following Statements:

(1) The Positive Peace Index measures the positive peace of 143 countries.
(2) It covers 59.6 percent of the world population.
(3) Positive peace is defined as the attitudes, institutions and structures that create sustain peaceful societies.
(4) It is based on more than 45,700 data series.

Q75. Consider the following Statements:

(1) The Global Health Security Index is a measure of pandemic (COVID-19) preparedness.
(2) Compared with the rest of the world, a higher percentage of people in OECD countries tend to be covered by public or mandatory private health insurance.
(3) “30 x 30” target relates to poverty eradication.
(4) World over, cities and other urban areas are home to around 25 percent of humanity.

Q76. Match List I with List II:

List I:
(a) Gini coefficient
(b) PISA Score
(c) Human Trophic Level
(d) Palma ratio

List II:
(i) a measure of the energy intensity of diet composition
(ii) assesses how far students near the end of compulsory education have acquired some of the knowledge and skills…
(iii) measures the extent to which the distribution of income among individuals or households…
(iv) The share of all income received by the 10% people with highest disposable income divided by the share…

Q77. Match List I with List II:

List I:
(a) Conglomerate
(b) Golden handshake
(c) Blue Chip
(d) Laissez Faire

List II:
(i) The company that has acquired interest in different industries…
(ii) an economic system in which transactions between private groups of people are free…
(iii) an employment agreement with states that the employer will provide a significant severance package…
(iv) stock in a stock corporation with a national reputation for quality reliability…

Q16. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I:
A. Net Tax Revenue
B. Non-Tax Revenue
C. Gross Tax Revenue
D. Non-debt capital receipts

List-II (Growth rate in 2018-19):
1. 6%
2. 22.3%
3. 8.4%
4. – 2.5%

Q64. The sustainable Development Goal “Good Health and Well being” has shown improvement in India due to:

Q65. ‘National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture’ has been launched to:

Q69. SANKALP is launched to provide:

Q67. What is the minimum calorie requirement in rural areas for measuring poverty?

Q68. The phenomenon of ‘demographic dividend’ of a country is related to:

Q70. According to FRBM Act, India’s fiscal deficit should not exceed:

Q89. Consider the following statements:

Statement 1: Revenue Deficit is the excess of revenue expenditure over revenue receipts.
Statement 2: Effective Revenue Deficit is the difference between Revenue Deficit and Grants for Creation of Capital Assets.

Q99. Arrange the following steps in relation to self-help groups in correct sequence:

(1) Lending, repayment and maintaining accounts and records.
(2) Arranging regular meetings with groups.
(3) Identifying the area and forming a group of women with common interest.
(4) Deciding on the amount for contribution and pooling the money.

Q56. Which among the following variables/factors are not used in constructing Human Development Index of India?

Q57. Disguised unemployment means:

Q58. Human Development Index does not use which parameter while measuring gender inequality:

Q59. SANKALP is launched to provide:

Q60. Golden rule of fiscal policy in India is:

Q61. Which of the following is an example of management performance indicator?

Q62. Which of these is the dimension of Corporate Social Responsibility?

Q63. NGOs are recognized as ___________ to foucs and fix the problems present in the development process.

Q89. Which one is incorrect regarding sustainable development?

Q90. Sustainable development goals and targets are to be achieved by:

Q91. Which one of the following is not a part of the strategy of a direct attack on poverty?

Q92. Over the years, the government has been following approach/es to reduce poverty in India:

I. Specific Poverty Alleviation Programmes
II. Growth-oriented development
III. Meeting the minimum needs of the poor.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Q93. Poverty gap reflects:

Q94. NITI Aayog action agenda for enhancing digital connectivity is based on:

I. Developing software for services that can be provided digitally
II. Enhancing digital infra-structure
III. Empowering citizens digitally

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Q95. Which of the following is not an indicator of economically underdeveloped countries?

Q96. What is/are the objectives of the Competition Commission of India (CCI)?

I. To ensure freedom of trade carried on by other participants in markets in India.
II. To protect the interests of consumers.
III. To promote and sustain competition in markets.
IV. To prevent practices having an adverse effect on competition

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Q97. Which year is known as the year of demographic divide?

Q98. The total fertility rate is:

Q99. The national food security mission (NFSM) aims to enhance the production of:

I. Pulses
II. Vegetables
III. Rice
IV. Wheat
V. Fruits
VI. Coarse cereals

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Q100. Which of the following schemes aims at creating 300 rural clusters across India to strengthen financial, job and lifestyle facilities in rural areas?

Q70. How many sustainable developments are there in the U.N. Agenda 2030?

Q71. What is India’s estimated GDP growth rate for 2018-19 in the Economic Survey?

Q72. What was the Index of Industrial Production in December 2017?

Q73. Find the correct poverty estimates for the given states in 2011-12, as per the Planning Commission?

Q74. With what is “Operation Green” related?

Q75. What is the bank account available to Dalits and Women under “Stand-up India”?

Q76. What was the approximate decadal population growth rate of Himachal Pradesh in census 2011?

Q77. Immunization of all children by 2020 is related to:

Q78. According to the Global Nutrition Report 2017, how many females suffered from anaemia in India?

Q79. What is the estimated social sector expenditure in budget 2018-19?

Q80. How many poor families will be provided with how much medical insurance per family in 2018-19 under the Ayushmaan Bharat Yojana?

Q81. How many hours per year are the people expected to contribute for cleanliness under the Swachh Bharat Abhiyaan?

Q71. Which of the following statements is correct in reference to the Finance Commission of India?

Q72. In the Budget for 2017-18, the funds allocated for MGNREGA is:

Q73. As per census 2011, literacy rate in Himachal Pradesh for male and female respectively is:

Q74. HDI is measured with reference to:

(1) Infant Mortality
(2) Real GDP per capita
(3) Life Expectancy at birth
(4) Morbidity

Q75. Who conducts the periodical sample survey for estimating the poverty line in India?

Q76. AMRUT was launched on:

Q77. Which of the following State of India has the highest poverty ratio?

Q78. For the Budget proposals 2017-18; which of the following is not correct?

Q79. The growth rate of Himachal Pradesh during 12th Plan (2012-17) has been estimated at:

Q80. What was the unemployment rate during 2015-16 based on Usual Principal Status in India?

Q63. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana was launched on:

Q64. Earth Summit 2012 for sustainable development was held in:

Q65. According to Planning Commission estimates for 2011-12; which of the following states have maximum percentage of population below poverty line?

Q66. The World Investment Report WIR) is published by:

Q67. SEBI was established in the year:

Q68. ‘NITI’ in NITI Ayog stands for:

Q69. Annual Summit 2015 of BRICS nations will be held in:

Q70. As per population census 2011, what is the percentage of urban population in Himachal Pradesh and India respectively:

Q71. Recently the Government of India has decided to revise the base year for estimating the GDP from:

Q72. National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) was established in the year:

Q68. NABARD came into existence in the year:

Q69. Who is the Chairman Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) at present?

Q70. The Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS) was adopted in the year :

Q71. What is 1ndia’s Global Position out of 187 countries as per UNDP’s Human Development Report, 2011?

Q72. Which one of the following is correct measure of Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)?

Q73. What was the average annual growth rate of Agricultural and Allied Sector in India during 11th five year plan?

Q74. “There is enough for everybody’s need but not enough for everybody’s greed.” Who said it?

Q75. The Khadi and Village Industries Commission was established during which of the Five Year Plans?

Q76. Which of the statements given below is/are correct ‘?

(i) Bihar has the highest decadal (2001-2011′) growth rate of population, while Kerala has the lowest.
(ii) The best performing state in terms of growth rate during 2011-12 in Bihar.

Q77. Which one of the following is taken as the Base Year for estimating GDP at constant prices in India during 2012-13?

Q78. Which Indian state has the lowest death rate according to census 2011?

Q67. Which Indian city has the highest population according to 2011 Census?

Q68. Which of the following Indian Companies has been listed at the top in Forbes- 2000 list?

Q69. ‘Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan Yojana’ is associated with:

Q70. The maximum limit of Foreign Direct investment (FDI) in public sector banking is:

Q71. Which of the following plans is meant for constructing houses for rural people?

Q72. As per 13th Finance Commission Recommendations during 2010-15, transfers to the states in the form of ‘grant-in –aid’ are expected to be:

Q73. Which of the following is/are the component (s) of Gross Domestic Capital Formation (GDCF)?

(1) Gross Domestic Savings
(2) Net Capital Inflow
(3) Direct Foreign Investment.

Q74. Ethanol mixed petrol is being sold in various states w.e.f. January 1, 2003. The percentage of ethanol in petrol is:

Q75. At present the National Commission on Population is under:

Q76. Consider the following statements:

(1) The repo rate is the rate at which other banks borrow from the Reserve Bank of India.
(2) A value of 0 for Gini co-efficient in country implies that there is perfectly equal income for everyone in its population.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q77. Tara pore Committee was associated with which one of the following?

Q78. Participatory Notes (PNs) are associated with which one of the following?

Q81. Indian agriculture has the following features:

(1) Dependence of agriculture on the monsoons
(2) Abolition of Zamidari
(3) Absence of trade unions in the agricultural sector
(4) Heavy pressure of population on land

Which of the above is responsible for disguised unemployment in Agriculture?

Q82. Consider the following taxes:

(1) Sales tax
(2) Income tax
(3) Corporate tax
(4) Entertainment tax

Which of the above taxes are levied by the State government and not Shared by Central Government?

Q83. Consider the following in relation with corporate tax:

(1) Total turnover of the -company
(2) Profit after distribution of dividend
(3) Profit before distribution of dividend
(4) Capital employed in the company

Which one of the above is the basis of corporate tax?

Q84. India is at which of the following stages of demographic Transition?

Q85. Male literacy in the recent census 2011 has increased to:

Q86. Which one of the following treaties was not covered by the Uruguay round Negotiations, which established WTO?

Q87. The second largest trade partner of India with their total trade (sum of imports and exports) for the year 2009-2010 is:

Q88. Which of the following is the highest export-oriented handicrafts (in value terms) in Indian exports?

Q89. Consider the following in the context of food inflation in India;

(1) Ban on transaction in agricultural products in ‘Future Commodities Exchange Market’
(2) Restrictions on import of agricultural Products
(3) Unruly weather conditions
(4) Hoarding and Trader Cartel

Which of the above are the possible reasons for food inflation?

Q90. Which one of ‘the following pairs is correctly matched?

Q91. Which one of the following represents at least in part investment in human capital?

Q92. Which one of the following led the Malegam committee to recommend for interest rate cap for micro-finance institutions?

Q93. Consider the following related to Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) being implemented in partnership with the States for addressing the needs of children:

(1) Enrolment of all children in school
(2) Addressing the need of child in the age group of 6-10
(3) Setting up Education Guarantee Centers (ECG) alternate Schools etc.
(4) Bridging of gender and social category gaps in enrolment with retention and learning

Which of the above is not correct?