NT PRE-2021 General Studies Paper
Q1. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given options:
List-I (Place): (a) Suket, (b) Hindur, (c) Datarpur, (d) Keonthal
List-II (Founded by): (i) Giri Sen, (ii) Vir Sen, (iii) Ajay Chand, (iv) Datar Chand
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Q2. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given options:
List-I (Movement): (a) Dhami Satyagraha, (b) Pajhota Kissan Andolna, (c) Movement against Begar, (d) Kunihar Movement
List-II (Leadership): (i) Satyanand Strokes, (ii) Gauri Shankar, (iii) Bhag Mal Sauhta, (iv) Mian Chunchu
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Q3. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given options:
List-I (Elections): (a) 13th Lok Sabha (1999), (b) 14th Lok Sabha (2004), (c) 15th Lok Sabha (2009), (d) 16th Lok Sabha (2014)
List-II (Seats Won in H.P. – Congress : BJP): (i) 3:1, (ii) 1:3, (iii) 0:4, (iv) 0:3
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Q4. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given options:
List-I (Year): (a) 1981, (b) 1991, (c) 2001, (d) 2011
List-II (Child Sex Ratio H.P.): (i) 951, (ii) 909, (iii) 896, (iv) 971
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Q5. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given options:
List-I (Valley): (a) Boh Valley, (b) Imla Bimla Valley, (c) Hudan Valley, (d) Hangrang Valley
List-II (Location): (i) Mandi, (ii) Kinnar, (iii) Kangra, (iv) Chamba
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Q6. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given options:
List-I (Item): (a) Goods and Services Tax, (b) State Excise, (c) Value Added Tax, (d) Passenger and Goods Tax
List-II (H.P. Target for 2021-22): (i) ₹ 1867.90 crore, (ii) ₹ 3106.25 Crore, (iii) ₹ 88.37 Crore, (iv) ₹ 1614.10 Crore
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Q7. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given options:
List-I (Town): (a) Janjehli, (b) Larji, (c) Katrain, (d) Manikaran
List-II (Altitude in meter): (i) 1737 meter, (ii) 1463 meter, (iii) 957 meter, (iv) 2410 meter
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Q8. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given options:
List-I (Authors): (a) Kiran Bedi, (b) N.R. Narayana Murthy, (c) Kapil Sibal, (d) Raghuram Rajan
List-II (Books): (i) I do what I do, (ii) I Witness : Partial Observations, (iii) Dare to Do : For the New Generation, (iv) A Better India : A Better World
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Q9. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given options:
List-I (Padma Awards-2022): (a) Radheshyam Khemka, (b) Natrajan Chandrasekaran, (c) Gulam Nabi Azad, (d) Prabha Atre
List-II (Area of Work): (i) Art, (ii) Public Affairs, (iii) Trade and Industry, (iv) Literature and Education
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Q10. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given options:
List-I (Nobel Laureates): (a) Venki Rama Krishnan, (b) Abhijit Banerjee, (c) Hargobind Khorana, (d) S.Chandrasekhar
List-II (Area of Work): (i) Economics, (ii) Physics, (iii) Chemistry, (iv) Medicine
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Q11. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given options:
List-I (Tokyo-2020 Olympic Winners): (a) Saikhom Mirabai Chanu, (b) Lovlina Borgohain, (c) P.V. Sindhu, (d) Ravi Kumar Dahiya
List-II (Game): (i) Wrestling, (ii) Badminton, (iii) Weight lifting, (iv) Boxing
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Q12. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given options:
List-I (Nobel Prizes-2021 Winners): (a) David Julius, (b) Benjamin List, (c) Syukuro Manabe, (d) Dmitry Muratov
List-II (Area of Work): (i) Chemistry, (ii) Peace, (iii) Medicine, (iv) Physics
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Q13. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given options:
List-I (Name of People of Indian Origin): (a) Anita Anand, (b) Rishi Sunak, (c) Kamla Prasad Bissessar, (d) Priti Patel
List-II (Their Political Stats Abroad): (i) Home Secretary (UK), (ii) Leader of Opposition (Trinidad and Tobago), (iii) Minister of National Defence (Canada), (iv) Chief Secretary Treasury (UK)
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Q14. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given options:
List-I (Countries-Tokyo Olympic 2020): (a) France, (b) Australia, (c) China, (d) Japan
List-II (Medal Won): (i) 46, (ii) 88, (iii) 58, (iv) 33
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Q15. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given options:
List-I: (a) Jaynagar-Kurtha Rail link, (b) Bhasan Char Island, (c) International Solar Alliance (ISA), (d) New QUAD
List-II: (i) Rohingya Refugees, (ii) India, USA, UAE, Israel, (iii) Gurugram, (iv) Nepal
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Q16. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given options:
List-I (Particles of atom): (a) Proton, (b) Neutron, (c) Electron, (d) Alpha particle
List-II (Inventor): (i) Chadwick, (ii) Thomson, (iii) Goldstein, (iv) Rutherford
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Q17. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given options:
List-I (Book/Magazine): (a) Essays on the Gita, (b) Rigvedadi Bhashya Bhumika, (c) Tuhfat-ul-Muwahhidin, (d) Ishara
List-II (Author): (i) Swami Dayanand, (ii) Mahatma Jyotiba Phule, (iii) Aurobindo Ghosh, (iv) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
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Q18. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given options:
List-I (Name of Festival): (a) Ugadi, (b) Bastar Dussehra, (c) Bhogali Bihu, (d) Gochi
List-II (State): (i) Himachal Pradesh, (ii) Assam, (iii) Andhra Pradesh, (iv) Chhatisgarh
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Q19. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given options:
List-I (Traditional Sport): (a) Maramadi Bull Surfing, (b) Kambala, (c) Jallikattu, (d) Dhopkhel
List-II (State): (i) Assam, (ii) Tamil Nadu, (iii) Kerala, (iv) Karnataka
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Q20. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given options:
List-I (Name of Scheme): (a) Jal Jeevan Mission, (b) National Health Mission, (c) National Education Mission, (d) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
List-II (GOI Budget Allocation for 2022-23): (i) ₹ 37800 crore, (ii) ₹ 19000 crore, (iii) ₹ 60000 crore, (iv) ₹ 39553 crore
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Q21. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given options:
List-I (Peaks): (a) Guru Shikhar, (b) Doddabeta, (c) Arma Konda, (d) Dhupgarh
List-II (Range): (i) Nilgiri, (ii) Eastern Ghat, (iii) Satpura, (iv) Aravali
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Q22. The Rajas of Chamba belong to which lineage?
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Q23. Revenue Training Institute is located at:
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Q24. The agriculture crop year is :
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Q25. Which Section of the H.P. Tenancy and Land Reforms Act, 1972 provides for restriction on transfer of land in favour of person who is not an agriculturist of the State?
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Q26. As per Indian Constitution Land Reform comes under:
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Q27. What is the name of mobile app to view land records in Himachal Pradesh?
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Q28. What is provided under ‘Atal Ashirwad Yojana’?
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Q29. Fruit production in Himachal Pradesh during 2020-21 was:
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Q30. Jarar Phuki system of marriage prevails in which district of Himachal Pradesh?
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Q31. Which of the following police station of Himachal Pradesh became the first police station of the state to have been linked with a Crime and Criminal Tracking Network System (CCTNS)?
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Q32. To meet the Sustainable Development Golas (SDGs) by 2030, what aim has been set up by the Department of Forests, to enhance the forest cover in Himachal Pradesh?
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Q33. Asia’s longest high speed test track NATRAX is inaugrated in Pithampur, which is located in which state?
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Q34. Which states have authorized the use of Hindi language in the proceedings of HIgh Courts by using the provisions of Article 348(2)?
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Q35. Which Articles have been inserted in the Constitution to provide reservation to the Economically Weaker Section (EWS)?
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Q36. The Project “Bamboo Oasis on Lands in Drought” (BOLD) was located in which state?
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Q37. Virachey National Parj is situated in which ASEAN state?
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Q38. ‘North-South Gas Project’ is a gas pipeline agreement signed between which two countries?
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Q39. Which of the following countries is not member of BIMSTEC?
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Q40. UN Secretary General belongs to which country?
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Q41. Normal rate of breathing in human being at rest is :
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Q42. Out of the following which does not secrete any hormone?
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Q43. Out of the following which is a suspension?
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Q44. Out of the following which is the secondary pollutant?
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Q45. Out of the following which represents the decibel level of rustling of tree leaves in normal circumstances?
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Q46. Who led the ‘Chittagong Armoury Raid’?
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Q47. Tagore Centre for the study of Culture and Civilization is located at :
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Q48. Which of the following Acts legalized marriage of Widows?
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Q49. Which Article of the Constitution restricts a Member of Parliament to hold an office of profit?
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Q50. Which items are included in India’s Foreign Exchange Reserves?
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Q51. Surth breed of buffalo is chiefly found in :
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Q52. Mandya in Karnataka is famous for:
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Q53. Construction Part IV (Article 36-51) contains the Directive Principles of State Policy. In the following options bring out those which include the scope of Gandhian principles?
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Q54. According to Gandhi, which is the best method of Conflict Resolution?
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Q55. Ahimsa and Truth in Gandhiji’s opinion :
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Q56. The prefix ‘Mahatma’ was added with the name of Gandhi :
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Q57. Gandhi’s Non-Violence emerged from :
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Q58. Gandhiji’s statement “the surplus money should be used for the welfare off the haveknots”, highlights :
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Q59. Statement-I: ‘Right to Property’ was removed from the list of fundamental rights vide 44th amendment of Indian Constitution.
Statement-II: Privy Purse of Rulers of former Indian States was abolished vide 26th amendment of Indian Constitution.
There are two statements for each question. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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Q60. Statement-I: Charang Pass is the pass at an elevation of 4850 meters where roads from Zanskar, Ladakh, Spiti and Lahaul meet.
Statement-II: Women of Lahaul-Spiti district have decided to plant sea-buck thorn in the region to conserve the environment, which is considered an eco-friendly plant for that area.
There are two statements for each question. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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Q61. Statement-I: Under mukhyamantri Swavalamban Yojana 19 new activies have been included to encourage the youth of 18 to 45 years with relaxation of 5 years in upper age limit for women, for self-employment.
Statement-II: The contribution of tourism sector to the Himachal Pradesh State Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is about 8 percent.
There are two statements for each question. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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Q62. Statement-I: Plan outlay for ‘Roads and Bridges’ in Himachal Pradesh during the year 2022-23 is ₹ 4373.00 crore.
Statement-II: Under Swaran Jayanti Vidyarthi Anushikshan Yojana students of Government schools studying in 8th to +2 classes, get free coaching for JEE-NEET Entrance Examinations.
There are two statements for each question. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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Q63. Statement-I: Under ‘Mukhya Mantri Bal Uddhar Yojana’, a grant of ₹ 40 thousand will be given for self-employment to children who on leaving Bal/Balika Aashrams do not wish to continue their studies.
Statement-II: Amongst 7 pillars of ‘Mukhya Mantri Bal Suposhan Yojana’ one of them will be to identify 2 main diseases viz. Diarrhoea and Pneumonia in the growing stages of children and their early treatment.
There are two statements for each question. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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Q64. Statement-I: Under the Himachal Healthcare Scheme (HIMCARE) cashless treatment coverage up to ₹ 5.00 lakh per year per family of upto five members is being provided on family floater basis.
Statement-II: Under Samman Yojna providing treatment and diagnostics services to the destitute patients who are left unattended in serious conditions in hospitals there is no limit to expenditure.
There are two statements for each question. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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Q65. Statement-I: Model Eco Village Scheme in Himachal Pradesh is being implemented through Department of Environment, Science and Technology.
Statement-II: 13 villages have been included under this scheme and ₹ 1.84 crore has been utilized under this scheme upto December, 2021.
There are two statements for each question. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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Q66. Statement-I: Odisha celebrates Raja Parba festival ?
Statement-II: Amartya Sen has authored the book “Home in the World”.
There are two statements for each question. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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Q67. Statement-I: Arun Kumar Mishra is appointed as Chairman National Human Rights Commission (NHRC).
Statement-II: Indian Boxer Sanjeet Kumar won bronze medal in Tokyo Olympic, 2020.
There are two statements for each question. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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Q68. Statement-I: Delhi Government has appointed Olympic medalist Karanm Malleswari as Vice Chancellor of Delhi Sports University.
Statement-II: Central Government has rewarded Chandigarh as the best Union Territory in its Smart City Award, 2020.
There are two statements for each question. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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Q69. Statement-I: Security and Growth for All in the Region (SAGAR) is not related to the geo-strategic and geo-economic interest of India.
Statement-II: Conference on Interaction and Confidence Building-Measures (CICA) is a multinational forum for enhancing cooperation in the area of peace, security and stability in Asia.
There are two statements for each question. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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Q70. Statement-I: India and the USA have entered into Green Strategic Partnership in 2022.
Statement-II: India and France were part of ‘Desert-Knight-21’.
There are two statements for each question. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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Q71. Statement-I: EL Salvador has become the first country to adopt Bitcoin as legal tender.
Statement-II: International Booker Prize in 2021 was given to Damon Galgut’s book- “The Promise”.
There are two statements for each question. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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Q72. Statement-I: Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) agreement in Southeast Asia has come into effect on 1st January, 2022.
Statement-II: United Arab Emirates (UAE) has introduced Golden Visa system in 2020 for long term residence Visas.
There are two statements for each question. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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Q73. Statement-I: QUAD is an informal group of four countries to look into the security concerns in Indo-Pacific region.
Statement-II: AUKUS agreement is an intergral part of the Quad system.
There are two statements for each question. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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Q74. Statement-I: Under the leaderhsip of Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan, the Pathans organized the Society of ‘Khudai Khidmatgar’.
Statement-II: “The Mahatma is more right when he wrong than we are when we are right.”-The opinion of Acharya Kriplani with reference to Mahatma Gandhi.
There are two statements for each question. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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Q75. Statement-I: Ritusamhara is poem describing the cycle of seasons.
Statement-II: The religious texts of Jainism are called Tripitak.
There are two statements for each question. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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Q76. Statement-I: Project ‘Mausam’ has been launched by the Ministry of Culture of Government of India.
Statement-II: It aims to rekindle the long-host ties across nations of the Pacific Ocean world.
There are two statements for each question. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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Q77. Statement-I: Uttar Pradesh was the first state to introduce the Panchayati Raj system.
Statement-II: Indian electoral system is based on ‘First-Past-The post system’.
There are two statements for each question. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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Q78. Statement-I: Provisions regarding citizenship are given in Part-II of the Indian Constitution.
Statement-II: Under Article 120(1) speaker can allow any member to speak in his/her mother tongue.
There are two statements for each question. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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Q79. Statement-I: Krishak Assistance for Livelihood and Income Augmentation (KALIA) Scheme was launched in Karnataka.
Statement-II: Mukhya Mantri Krishi Ashirwad Yojana was launched in Odhisha.
There are two statements for each question. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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Q80. Statement-I: As per “Ease of Doing Business Report, 2020” India’s ranking has been increased to 60 among 190 countries from 77 in the previous year.
Statement-II: India has improved its rank in 7 out of 10 indicators.
There are two statements for each question. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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Q81. Statement-I: Trade winds blow mainly in tropical zone.
Statement-II: Polar winds are very cold and dry.
There are two statements for each question. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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Q82. Statement-I: The western disturbance causes winter rain in north-west India.
Statement-II: The South-west monsoon starts retreating from north-west India during winter.
There are two statements for each question. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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Q83. Arrange the following Raman Magsaysay Awardees into chronological order of year of the award conferred to them:
(1) T.N. SHeshan
(2) Arvind Kejriwal
(3) CHintaman Deshmukh
(4) Ravish Kumar
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Q84. Arrange the following environmental related acts into chronological order of the year of their passing :
(1) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution ) Act
(2) National Green Tribunal Act (NGT)
(3) Wildlife (Protection) Act
(4) Forest Conversion Act
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Q85. Arrange in chronological order the passing of different Armed Forces Special Power Act (AFSPA) in different parts of the country.
(1) The Armed Forces (Jammu & Kashmir) Special Power Act
(2) The Armed Forces (Assam & Kashmir) Special Power Act
(3) Assam Distrubed Area Act.
(4) The Armed Forces (Punjab & Chandigarh) Special Power Act
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Q86. Arrange the following India-ASEAN events in a chronological order:
(1) Membership of ASEAN Regional Forum
(2) India-ASEAN Friendship Year
(3) Sectoral Dialogue Partnership
(4) Full Dialogue Partnership
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Q87. Arrange the following events in India-America relationship in chronological order:
(1) Indo-US Civil Nuclear Deal
(2) Kicklighter proposal
(3) Next Steps in Strategic Partnership
(4) High Technology Cooperation Group
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Q88. Arrange the following international developments related to Human Rights in a chronolgical order:
(1) Vienna Declaration
(2) Establishment of International Criminal Court
(3) Universal Declaration of Human Rights
(4) World Council of Indigenous Peoples
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Q89. Arrange the efforts towards non-proliferation of nuclear weapons treaty in a chronological order:
(1) Indefinite Extensions of NPT
(2) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty
(3) Moscow Test Ban Treaty
(4) Non-Proliferation Treaty
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Q90. The Following are the focal length of convex lenses. Arrange them in increasing order of their power:
(1) 15 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 25 cm
(4) 200 mm
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Q91. Arrange the following media in decreasing order of spee of sound in them:
(1) Water
(2) Aluminium
(3) Iron
(4) Air
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Q92. Arrange the following events in chronological order:
(1) Right to Education Act
(2) Formation of Telangana State
(3) Implementation of Right to Information
(4) Implementation of NREGA
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Q93. Arrange the following events in chronological order:
(1) Non- Cooperation Movement of Gandhi
(2) Khilafat Movement of Gandhi
(3) Salt Satyagrah of Gandhi
(4) Quit India Movement of Gandhi
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Q94. Arrange the following events in chronological order:
(1) Mahalanobis Planning Model
(2) Introduction of Rolling Plan
(3) Declaration of Plan Holiday
(4) Inclusive Growth Strategy
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Q95. Arrange the following events in chronological order:
(1) Introduction of Special Drawing Rights
(2) Introduction of Euro
(3) Introduction of Gols Standard Mechanism
(4) Introduction of Multilateral Trading System
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Q96. The correct seqence of these states in ascending order in terms of mangrove vegetation coverage is:
(1) Goa
(2) Andhra Pradesh
(3) Odhisha
(4) West Bengal
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Q97. Which are true about Deen Dayal Upadhyaya-Grameen Kaushal Yojana?
(1) It is being implemented in the State through Rural Development Department.
(2) 80 per cent of the trained candidates get placements in various sectors.
(3) Course duration varies from 3-12 months.
(4) Candidate’s post placement tracking is done for two years.
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Q98. Which of the following statements is/are true?
(1) Chandra Taal lake is situated below the low ridge of Kunzum range.
(2) Bradonsar lake is located between Dodra-kwar and Sangla
(3) Mantalai lake is the source of Tirthan river.
(4) There is a pagoda style temple of Parashar Rishi on the bank of the Renuka Lake
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Q99. Which of the following statements are true?
(1) The Gaddi Tribe people follow matriarchal type of family system.
(2) The Gaddi women keep their hair long and love jewellery.
(3) The Gaddi Tribe used to bury their dead.
(4) The Gaddis do not marry in their own brotherhood
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Q100. Which of the following statements are true?
(1) Audumbara, the most prominent tribe of Ancient Himachal, which finds a detailed reference in Mahabharat.
(2) The Audumbara Republic flourished in the Kangra region.
(3) From the time of Mughal Emperor Akbar till 1801 A.D., Chamba remained under the Mughal ascendancy.
(4) The Sikh Army invaded Kullu in 1817 A.D. and brought it under the Sikh control.
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Q101. Which of the following statements are true?
(1) Renuka Fair is held on the banks of Renuka lake
(2) Jwalamukhi Fair is held once a year
(3) Lavi is the most ancient Trade Fair in Himachal Pradesh.
(4) MINJAR is a seasonal Fair of Mandi.
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Q102. Women Welfare Schemes in Himachal Pradesh are:
(1) Women Development Corporation
(2) Mukhyamantri Kanyadan Yojana
(3) Balika Vadhu Yojana
(4) Dairy Development Corporation
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Q103. Which of the following statements are true?
(1) Jhanjhar dance is performed in Kinnaur
(2) Japro dance is performed in Chamba valley
(3) Burah dance is performed in Sirmaur
(4) Ludi dance is performed in Kullu valley.
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Q104. Which of the following statements are true?
(1) Parliament can be adjourned by the Prime Minister.
(2) Through adjournment Sine die Presiding Officer of the house can suspend parliament.
(3) On the request of opposition leader parliament can be suspended.
(4) President can dissolve Lok Sabha only.
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Q105. Which are the two women who are inducted as first two company commanders by the Indo-Tibet Border Police (ITBP) in 2021?
(1) Prakriti
(2) Nisha
(3) Pragati
(4) Diksha
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Q106. How can Citizenship in India be acquired?
(1) Conferred by birth
(2) By participating in election
(3) Through descent
(4) By paying certain fee
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Q107. What is true about Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament?
(1) Public Accounts Committee was first set by Government of India Act, 1919.
(2) It constitutes of 15 members from Lok Sabha and 7 members from Rajya Sabha.
(3) It cannot limit the expenses by the Government.
(4) Recommendation made by the committee is not of advisory nature.
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Q108. What is important about Kartarpur Corridor?
(1) It connects Dera Baba Nanak Shrine in Gurdaspur to Kartarpur Sahib Gurudwara in Pakistan.
(2) It provides trade route between India and Pakistan.
(3) It helps in checking the terrorist activities across border.
(4) It allows Indian devotees to visit Gurudwara without a Visa.
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Q109. Among the following which cities are capitals of South Africa?
(1) Bloemfontein
(2) Johannesburg
(3) Durban
(4) Cape Town
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Q110. India-Central Asia Summit, 2022 agree on the following:
(1) They agreed to establish its Secretariat at New Delhi.
(2) They want to develop connectivity through Pakistan.
(3) They establish joint working group to continuously monitor developments in Afghanistan.
(4) They agreed to provide gas to India through pipeline.
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Q111. What is true about Collective Security Treaty Organization (CSTO)?
(1) It is an American based security alliance in Central Asia.
(2) It originated from Collective Security Treaty signed in 1992 by Russia and few Central Asian States.
(3) It provides security to European states against Russia invasion.
(4) It is Russia-led military alliances to promote collective defence for its members.
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Q112. What is important about Russian-India-China (RIC) Foreign Ministers meet in September, 2021?
(1) It is 18th Foreign Minister meet where India became its chairman.
(2) It was aimed at to strengthen defence cooperation between the three states.
(3) It was conceived by the then Russian Foreign Minister Yevgency Primakov in 1998.
(4) It decided to create peace council in Afghanistan.
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Q113. Which of the following statements are true?
(1) Sound can travel in vacuum.
(2) Sound is provided by vibrating objects.
(3) Unpleasant sounda are called noise.
(4) Attempts should be made to maximize noise.
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Q114. Which of the following statements are true?
(1) Stars appear to move from East to West
(2) INSAT is a nutural satellite of earth.
(3) Earth is the smallest planet of the solar system.
(4) Venus is the brightest planet in the night sky.
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Q115. Which of the following statements are true?
(1) The Nizam of Hyderabad accepted the Subsidiary Alliance in 1798 A.D.
(2) The Nawab of Awadh was forced to sign a subsidiary treaty in 1801 A.D.
(3) The Mahalwari system was introduced in Tamil Nadu.
(4) The First Anglo-Sikh war was fought between 1843-44 A.D.
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Q116. Which of the following Indian handicrafts have GI (Geographical Indication) Status?
(1) Salem fabric
(2) Mysore Silk
(3) Kullu Shawl
(4) Orissa Ikat
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Q117. Which of the following statements are true?
(1) In matter of use Fundamental Rights make distinction between citizens and Foreigners.
(2) Fundamental Rights are unlimited.
(3) They are given protection only by the Supreme Court.
(4) They are superior to laws made by the Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies.
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Q118. Which of the following statements are true?
(1) Power of Judicial Review can make judiciary dictator.
(2) Purpose of adjournment motion is to draw attention of the house towards an important matter of public interest.
(3) Provisions of disqualification of members on the basis of defection are given in Xth Schedule.
(4) Sarkaria Commission was in favour of increasing the powers of the Parliament.
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Q119. Which of the following statements are true?
(1) The Prime Minister who adopted new Economic Policy was Mr. Rajiv Gandhi.
(2) Reduction in Inflation rate was one of the objectives of new Economic Policy.
(3) Indian Industries were given the freedom to import Capital Goods.
(4) Number of Industries reserved for Public Sector were reduced to 5.
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Q120. Which of the following measures are effective for soil conservation in India?
(1) Avoiding crop rotation
(2) Afforestation
(3) Encouraging the use of chemical fertilizers
(4) Limiting shifting cultivation