Q1. Where was the 7th meeting of the National Board for Wildlife was held ?

• (A) Gir National Park
• (B) Kanha National Park
• (C) Wildlife Institute of India
• (D) Corbett National Park

Q2. Which of the following is not a constituent body of National Statistics Office ?

• (A) Central Statistical Office
• (B) Data Informatics and Innovation Division
• (C) Indian Statistical Institute
• (D) National Sample Survey Office

Q3. Who said these words on the death of Mahatma Gandhi – “We have learned our lesson at a very high price. Is there anyone among us who would refuse to carry on Gandhi’s mission after his death. Hindustanis have to unite and fight against that terrible poison of communalism, which has taken away from us the greatest man of our times”.

• (A) J.L. Nehru
• (B) Vallabhbhai Patel
• (C) Madan Mohan Malaviya
• (D) Sarojini Naidu

Q4. Marble Falls pertain to:

• (A) The Narmada system
• (B) The Tapi system
• (C) The Krishna system
• (D) The Kaveri system

Q5. Baghelkhand region is located to the east of:

• (A) The Malwa Plateau
• (B) The Maikal Range
• (C) The Chota Nagpur Plateau
• (D) The Telangana Plateau

Q6. Who decides the disqualification of members of State Legislative Assembly, for matters other than those in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution?

• (A) Governor of the State
• (B) State High Court
• (C) Speaker, Legislative Assembly
• (D) State Election Commission

Q7. What is the objective of ‘Cut Motion’ in the Parliament ?

• (A) To restrict day-to-day financial expenditure of Government
• (B) To restrict grants of the Government
• (C) To move a proposal to reduce expenditure in budget proposals
• (D) To restrict grants from consolidated fund of India

Q8. Which of the following best explains the “Twin Balance Sheet” problem in the Indian economy?

• (A) High fiscal deficit and current account deficit
• (B) High NPAs and low capital buffer in NBFCs
• (C) Stressed balance sheets of banks and over-leveraged corporates
• (D) Bad loans in agriculture and MSME sector

Q9. Which of the following can cause “Stagflation”?

• (A) Rapid increase in aggregate demand
• (B) Sudden supply shock like rise in oil prices
• (C) Expansionary fiscal policy
• (D) Appreciation of the domestic currency

Q10. Which of the following Indian States emerged number one in NITI Aayog’s Fiscal Health Index 2025 ?

• (A) Tamil Nadu
• (B) Himachal Pradesh
• (C) Goa
• (D) Odisha

Q11. Which of the following best explains “Operation Twist” by RBI ?

• (A) It increases CRR while decreasing SLR
• (B) It simultaneously buys long-term and sells short-term government securities
• (C) It raises repo rate but reduces reverse repo
• (D) It involves swapping forex reserves for rupee bonds

Q12. Which of the following cities of India is a wetland accredited city under the Ramsar Convention ?

• (A) Indore
• (B) Bhopal
• (C) Bengaluru
• (D) Imphal

Q13. When was the National Centre for Disaster Management established in India ?

• (A) 2005
• (B) 1975
• (C) 1995
• (D) 1985

Q14. A tadpole develops into an adult frog by the process of:

• (A) Fertilisation
• (B) Metamorphosis
• (C) Embedding
• (D) Budding

Q15. What was the theme of 8th Indian Ocean Conference held at Muscat, Oman ?

• (A) Maritime security and counterterrorism
• (B) Maritime security threats
• (C) Economic Lifeline and Trade
• (D) Voyage to New Horizons of maritime partnership

Q16. Cocos plate is located between :

• (A) Central America and Pacific plate
• (B) Asiatic and Pacific plate
• (C) South America and Pacific plate
• (D) Phillippine and Indian plate

Q17. Who prepared the “Report of the Land Revenue settlement of the Kangra District, printed in 1874?

• (A) J.B. Lyall
• (B) G.C. Barnes
• (C) J.D. Cunningham
• (D) Victor Jacqimo

Q18. Who among the following was not the Vice-President of the Himalayan Hill States Sub-regional Council ?

• (A) Tej Singh Nidhadak
• (B) Leela Das Verma
• (C) Sadaram Chandel
• (D) Shivanand Ramaul

Q19. From which constituency Dr. Yashwant Singh Parmar was elected to represent in (1952-56) Himachal Assembly ?

• (A) Rajgarh
• (B) Pachhad
• (C) Renuka
• (D) Nahan

Q20. Mountain Soil Zone in Himachal Pradesh is found between :

• (A) 3000-6000 m
• (B) 1500-3000 m
• (C) 1000-1500 m
• (D) 900-1000 m

Q21. Given below are two statements :
Statement I: The Spices Board of India’s headquarters is located at Kochi.
Statement II: India produces 75 out of 109 spice varieties listed by the International Organisation for Standardization.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q22. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: India is the second largest arms importer after Ukraine during 2020-24, as per the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute report.
Statement II: India has developed two defence industrial corridors in Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu to boost the defence manufacturing.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q23. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The revolt of 1857 in Lucknow started on 30th May, 1857.
Statement II: The revolt of 1857 in Kanpur started on 28th June, 1857.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q24. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Mukund Rao Patil started publishing the mouthpiece of Satyasahodak Samaj, ‘Dinmitra’ from 1910.
Statement II: Natal Indian Congress was established in 1896. At that time Mahatma Gandhi was made its President.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q25. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was not associated with “Independent Labour Party” in India.
Statement II: Kanshi Ram was associated with the “Scheduled Castes Federation” in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q26. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In the Interim Government of 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru was Prime Minister and Head of the Executive Council of Viceroy.
Statement II: Rajni Kothari observed that “It is not politics that gets caste ridden, it is caste that gets politicised”.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q27. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme covers 14 sectors, with a total outlay of Rs. 1.97 lakh crore.
Statement II: The PLI scheme has achieved 100% of its targeted investment in the electronics sector by FY 2024-25.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q28. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The National Monetisation Pipeline (NMP) aims to raise Rs. 6 lakh crore by FY 2024-25.
Statement II: The NMP includes monetisation of assets in the education sector.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q29. Read the following statements:
Statement I: Apart from issuing currency notes, RBI regulates all commercial banks in India.
Statement II: Regulating NBFCs are not under the purview of RBI.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q30. Read the following statements:
Statement I: Share of agriculture in total GSDP of Himachal Pradesh has declined from about 75 percent in 1950-51 to little above 20 percent in 2023-24.
Statement II: As per economic survey 2024-25 of the state, however, in terms of employment still 54 percent of the state population is engaged in primary sector.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q31. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: India’s first wolf sanctuary is located at Bankapur in Karnataka.
Statement II: The Indian grey wolf is classified as endangered species by the IUCN.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q32. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The withdrawal of USA from Paris Agreement in 2025 will strengthen global climate action momentum.
Statement II: India has indicated a shift in its climate change approach by focussing less on adaptation rather than mitigation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q33. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Magnetite is a natural magnet.
Statement II: A freely suspended magnet always aligns in N-S direction.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q34. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The mass of an object is a measure of its inertia.
Statement II: Force of friction always opposes motion of objects.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q35. Tianwen-1 Mars mission pertains to which of the following country ?

• (A) Japan
• (B) South Korea
• (C) China
• (D) USA

Q36. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Tropical humid climates exist between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn.
Statement II: Mediterranean type of climate occurs around Mediterranean Sea.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q37. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The meanest and most onerous kind of forced labour was to carry loads known as ‘Pund Begar’.
Statement II: The Begar forms in Chamba State were five in number called ‘Panj Haqq’.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q38. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The Gujjars of Himachal Pradesh are both Hindus and Muslims.
Statement II: Lahaulis and Spitians have Mongoloid features.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q39. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Rohtang Pass lies in Dhauladhar ranges.
Statement II: Kunzum Pass is famous as Valley of Shadows.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q40. Consider the following statements regarding the administrative structure of Kullu tehsil at the end of the 19th Century :
Statement I: Tehsils were divided into waziris, and waziris into phatis.
Statement II: Each phati was further divided into kothis.
Choose the correct option :

• (A) Both statements are correct
• (B) Only statement I is correct
• (C) Only statement II is correct
• (D) Both statements are incorrect

Q41. Arrange the following states with share of women-led MSMEs during 2024 from highest to lowest :
(1) Tamil Nadu
(2) West Bengal
(3) Telangana
(4) Karnataka.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
• (B) (2), (1), (3), (4)
• (C) (4), (3), (2), (1)
• (D) (2), (4), (1), (3)

Q42. Arrange the following schemes of Government of India from newest to oldest :
(1) Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana
(2) Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats and Tangible Incomes
(3) Atal Bhujal Yojana
(4) Stand-up India Yojana.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
• (B) (2), (3), (1), (4)
• (C) (4), (3), (2), (1)
• (D) (2), (4), (1), (3)

Q43. Arrange these events related to Modern Indian History in chronological order :
(1) Ganpati Festival started by Tilak
(2) Appointment of a Police Commission Chaired by Andrew Fraser
(3) Shivaji Mahotsav started by Tilak
(4) Appointment of Hunter Education Commission.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1), (4), (3), (2)
• (B) (4), (1), (3), (2)
• (C) (1), (3), (2), (4)
• (D) (2), (4), (1), (3)

Q44. Arrange these Governor General/Viceroy of British India in chronological order
(1) Lord Auckland
(2) Lord Ellenborough
(3) Lord Lansdowne
(4) Lord Elgin-I.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1), (2), (4), (3)
• (B) (1), (2), (3), (4)
• (C) (4), (1), (2), (3)
• (D) (2), (4), (1), (3)

Q45. Arrange the following uplands of peninsular India from South to North :
(1) Palghat
(2) Javadi Hills
(3) Bhorghat
(4) Rajmahal Hills.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
• (B) (2), (3), (4), (1)
• (C) (3), (4), (2), (1)
• (D) (4), (3), (2), (1)

Q46. Arrange the following tiger reserves of India from North to South :
(1) Corbett
(2) Valmiki
(3) Indrawati
(4) Bhadra.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (2), (4), (1), (3)
• (B) (1), (2), (3), (4)
• (C) (1), (3), (2), (4)
• (D) (1), (4), (2), (3)

Q47. Arrange the following freedom movement events in order of their happening :
(1) INA Trial
(2) Quit India Movement
(3) Civil Disobedience Movement
(4) Non-Cooperation Movement.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
• (B) (2), (3), (4), (1)
• (C) (3), (4), (1), (2)
• (D) (4), (3), (2), (1)

Q48. Arrange the following by the year they became operational in India’s financial sector:
(1) Real-Time Gross Settlement (RTGS)
(2) National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT)
(3) Unified Payments Interface (UPI)
(4) Account Aggregator Framework.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
• (B) (2), (1), (4), (3)
• (C) (4), (2), (3), (1)
• (D) (3), (2), (1), (4)

Q49. Arrange the following monetary policy tools by the order in which RBI typically uses them to control inflation :
(1) Open Market Operations (OMO)
(2) Repo Rate Hike
(3) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) Adjustment
(4) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) Adjustment.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
• (B) (2), (1), (4), (3)
• (C) (4), (2), (3), (1)
• (D) (3), (2), (1), (4)

Q50. Arrange the following items in descending order as percentage of GDP in India :
(1) Gross Fiscal Deficit
(2) Gross Domestic Capital Formation
(3) Central Government Debt
(4) Gross Tax Revenue.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (3), (2), (4), (1)
• (B) (2), (3), (4), (1)
• (C) (3), (2), (1), (4)
• (D) (2), (3), (1), (4)

Q51. Arrange the following states in descending order as per Worker Population Ratio (WPR) of all ages according to PLFS 2023-24 report :
(1) Punjab
(2) Himachal Pradesh
(3) Haryana
(4) Uttarakhand.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1), (3), (2), (4)
• (B) (2), (4), (1), (3)
• (C) (3), (2), (1), (4)
• (D) (2), (3), (1), (4)

Q52. Arrange the following ecological hotspots of the World from West to East :
(1) Tropical Andes
(2) Upper Guinean Forests
(3) Eastern Madagascar
(4) Melanesia (New Caledonia).
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
• (B) (2), (3), (4), (1)
• (C) (3), (4), (1), (2)
• (D) (4), (3), (2), (1)

Q53. Arrange the following National Parks of India from West to East :
(1) Kanha
(2) Vansada
(3) Kaziranga
(4) Bhitarkanika.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (2), (4), (1), (3)
• (B) (1), (3), (2), (4)
• (C) (2), (1), (3), (4)
• (D) (3), (2), (4), (1)

Q54. Arrange the following substances in increasing order of their pH value
(1) Gastric Juice
(2) Milk of Magnesia
(3) Lemon Juice
(4) Pure Water.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
• (B) (4), (3), (2), (1)
• (C) (3), (4), (1), (2)
• (D) (1), (3), (4), (2)

Q55. Which position India got in the Global Innovation Index 2024 ?

• (A) 35th
• (B) 39th
• (C) 55th
• (D) 25th

Q56. Arrange the following tectonic plates of world from North to South :
(1) Scotia plate
(2) Cocos plate
(3) Nazca plate
(4) Juan De Fuca plate.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1), (3), (2), (4)
• (B) (4), (3), (2), (1)
• (C) (4), (2), (1), (3)
• (D) (4), (2), (3), (1)

Q57. Arrange these foreign travellers who visited Himachal Pradesh in chronological order :
(1) Captain Munde
(2) Baron Hugel
(3) J.B. Fraser
(4) Alexander Gerard.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (2), (1), (3), (4)
• (B) (4), (3), (1), (2)
• (C) (3), (4), (1), (2)
• (D) (3), (1), (2), (4)

Q58. Consider the following statements :
(1) The first step in rural electrification was taken on January 14, 1958 when lights were switched on at Sundernagar.
(2) At the time of electrification of Sundernagar in Mandi district, its population was nearly 12,000 when its 20 nearby villages in fertile Balh Valley were given electrification.
(3) The electrification programme in the state was divided into two parts. Local power generation was proposed in high valleys remote from the district headquarters. The lower belts of the state near Punjab were to get electricity from the Nangal and Uhl river feeder.
(4) The Shanan powerhouse is currently under the control of Punjab State Electricity Board and whole of the revenue goes to Punjab Government.
Select the correct answer given below :

• (A) Only (1) and (3) are correct
• (B) Only (3) and (4) are correct
• (C) Only (1) and (2) are correct
• (D) Only (4) and (2) are correct

Q59. Match the representative of princely hill states who participated as their representative of population for the constitution of Himachal Pradesh into a single state :
List I (Representative Name): (a) Surat Ram Prakash, (b) Hira Singh Pal, (c) Bhaskara Nand, (d) Salig Ram Tejta.
List II (Name of the Princely State): (i) Jubbal, (ii) Bhajji, (iii) Baghat, (iv) Theog.
Choose the correct answer :

• (A) (a) (i) (b) (iii) (c) (iv) (d) (ii)
• (B) (a) (ii) (b) (iii) (c) (i) (d) (iv)
• (C) (a) (iv) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (d) (i)
• (D) (a) (iii) (b) (ii) (c) (i) (d) (iv)

Q60. What is the audible range of sound for the average human ear ?

• (A) 20 Hz to 20 kHz
• (B) 0 Hz to 20 Hz
• (C) 20 kHz to 50 kHz
• (D) 50 kHz to 1 MHz

Q61. Consider the following statements :
(1) India has a total of 89 Ramsar sites on February 2, 2025.
(2) Udhwa lake is the first Ramsar site of Jharkhand.
(3) Khecheopalri Ramsar site is in Tamil Nadu.
(4) World Wetland Day 2025 was organised and celebrated at Sunderbans, West Bengal.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (2) and (3) only
• (B) (1) and (4) only
• (C) (3) and (4) only
• (D) (1) and (2) only

Q62. Consider the following statements :
(1) 38th National Games held in Patna.
(2) 39th National Games will be held in Meghalaya.
(3) The mascot for the 38th National Games was Mauli, inspired by the Himalayan Monal.
(4) Haryana was the top performer in 38th National Games.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (2) and (3) only
• (B) (1) and (2) only
• (C) (2) and (4) only
• (D) (1) and (3) only

Q63. Consider the following statements :
(1) Mir Mahboob Ali Khan, the 6th Nizam of Hyderabad was the only ruler of India to be given the title “His Exalted Highness”.
(2) On the basis of Mountbatten plan, the British Parliament passed the Indian Independence Act 1947 on 28 July 1947.
(3) The Raja of Dhaulpur Riyasat told Mountbatten with tears in his eyes that this has broken the old relationship of our ancestors and the ancestors of your Emperor which was going on since 1765′.
(4) The Cripps proposal was a failed attempt to treat a child who was not even born : – Pattabhi Sitaramiya.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1) and (2) only
• (B) (3) and (4) only
• (C) (2) and (3) only
• (D) (1) and (4) only

Q64. Consider the following statements :
(1) No Viceroy in modern times has been subjected to a fiercer criticism than Lytton – P.E. Roberts.
(2) In the year 1907, D.K. Karve founded Indian Women’s University in Mumbai.
(3) The South Indian Liberal Federation later came to be known as the Justice Party.
(4) Vipin Chandra Pal founded the ‘United Indian Patriotic Association’.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1) and (3) only
• (B) (2) and (3) only
• (C) (3) and (4) only
• (D) (1) and (4) only

Q65. In which year “The Co-operative Credit Societies Act” was passed ?

• (A) 1901
• (B) 1903
• (C) 1904
• (D) 1907

Q66. Consider the following statements :
(1) Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme was launched in 1996-97.
(2) Command Area Development Programme was taken up in 2014-15.
(3) Hydrology Project was launched by Government of India with the World Bank assistance in 1974-75.
(4) Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana was launched during 2015-16.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1) and (4) only
• (B) (2) and (4) only
• (C) (3) and (4) only
• (D) (1) and (2) only

Q67. Consider the following statements :
(1) The cool dry season lasts from mid-September to mid-December in India.
(2) The cyclones in October form over the Bay of Bengal between 8° and 14° N.
(3) The Coromandel coastal region receives more than 90 percent of its rainfall during summer season.
(4) October and November months represent a primary rainy season in Kerala.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (3) and (4) only
• (B) (2) and (4) only
• (C) (1) and (2) only
• (D) (1) and (3) only

Q68. Consider the following statements :
(1) Constitutional Draft Committee had seven members.
(2) B.R. Ambedkar was Chairman of Drafts Committee.
(3) Jawaharlal Nehru was one of the member of that committee.
(4) Mohammad Saadulla was not member of that committee.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1) and (3) only
• (B) (2) and (4) only
• (C) (4) and (3) only
• (D) (1) and (2) only

Q69. Consider the following statements :
(1) INA trial was first initiated against Shah Nawaz, Prem Sahgal and G.S. Dhillon.
(2) Subhash Chandra Bose was main leader of defence team.
(3) This trial was held in a secretive manner.
(4) From Congress Party Jawaharlal Nehru, Tej Bahadure Sapru and K.N. Katju ready for defence of these INA-soldiers.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1) and (2) only
• (B) (3) and (4) only
• (C) (1) and (4) only
• (D) (2) and (3) only

Q70. Consider the following statements :
(1) Article 13(2) provides reservations to backward classes.
(2) Article 15(4) and 16(4) provide reservations for OBCs.
(3) Article 15(6) and 16(6) provide reservations to EWS of society.
(4) Article 14 provides reservation for SC & STs.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1) and (2) only
• (B) (2) and (3) only
• (C) (3) and (4) only
• (D) (4) and (1) only

Q71. Which of the following statements about India’s inflation trends in 2024 are correct ?
(1) CPI inflation fell to 3.65% in August 2024.
(2) Core inflation remained above 4% throughout FY 2024-25.
(3) WPI inflation turned negative in Q1 2024-25.
(4) Food inflation was the primary driver of CPI increases.
Choose the correct statements from the options given below :

• (A) (1) and (4) only
• (B) (2) and (3) only
• (C) (1) and (2) only
• (D) (3) and (4) only

Q72. Which of the following statements about India’s startup ecosystem in 2024 are correct?
(1) India had over 1.17 lakh recognized startups.
(2) The Startup India Seed Fund Scheme disbursed Rs. 1,000 crore.
(3) Unicorn startups doubled in number since 2020.
(4) The National Startup Advisory Council was dissolved in 2024.
Choose the correct statements from the options given below :

• (A) (1) and (4) only
• (B) (2) and (3) only
• (C) (1) and (2) only
• (D) (3) and (4) only

Q73. Consider the following statements :
(1) Soil is important for life on earth.
(2) Removal of land surface by ice is known as erosion.
(3) Clay and loam soil is used to make pots.
(4) Clayey soil is used to grow cotton crop.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1) and (2) only
• (B) (2) and (4) only
• (C) (1) and (3) only
• (D) (1) and (4) only

Q74. Consider the following statements :
(1) A concave mirror always forms a real image.
(2) A real image cannot be obtained on a screen.
(3) A concave lens always form a virtual image.
(4) White light is composed of seven colours.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1) and (2) only
• (B) (2) and (4) only
• (C) (3) and (4) only
• (D) (1) and (3) only

Q75. Consider the following statements :
(1) World Day of Social Justice is celebrated on February 28.
(2) World Day of Social Justice 2025 theme was “Empowering Social Protection”.
(3) World Day of Social Justice was established by UNGA in 2007.
(4) World Day of Social Justice is commemorated to combat unemployment, social exclusion and poverty.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1) and (2) only
• (B) (2) and (3) only
• (C) (3) and (4) only
• (D) (1) and (3) only

Q76. Consider the following statements:
(1) Atacamia is a coastal desert.
(2) Rubel-Khali is a cold desert.
(3) Sahara desert annually receives more than 50 cm of rainfall.
(4) Cold deserts generally have 2-25°C annual temperature.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (2) and (4) only
• (B) (1) and (4) only
• (C) (1) and (3) only
• (D) (2) and (3) only

Q77. Consider the following statements regarding public finance of Himachal Pradesh :
(1) According to Budget Estimate for the year 2024-25, share of revenue expenditure out of total expenditure is around 80 percent.
(2) Debt as a percentage of GSDP reached 75.33 during the year 2022-23.
(3) State’s own tax revenue as a percentage of total revenue for the year 2024-25 (BE) increased to 27.4.
(4) During FY 2024-25 (BE) education and health sector were allocated Rs. 9995 and Rs. 8575 crores respectively.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1) and (3) only
• (B) (1) and (2) only
• (C) (1) and (4) only
• (D) (2) and (3) only

Q78. According to PLFS 2023-24, share of secondary and tertiary sector in employment in Himachal Pradesh respectively are :

• (A) 25 percent and 30 percent
• (B) 27 percent and 30 percent
• (C) 22 percent and 24 percent
• (D) 18 percent and 25 percent

Q79. According to Census 2011, consider the following statements regarding sex ratio (females per 1,000 males) in Kullu district :
Statement I : Sex ratio in 2011 is lower than in 1911.
Statement II : Sex ratio in 2011 in Kullu District is lower in Himachal.
Choose the correct option :

• (A) Both Statements are correct
• (B) Only Statement I is correct
• (C) Only Statement II is correct
• (D) Both Statements are incorrect

Q80. Consider the following statements :
(1) Kibbar is the largest wildlife sanctuary in Himachal Pradesh.
(2) Kheerganga National Park was established in 1994 in Himachal Pradesh.
(3) Tarla wildlife sanctuary of Himachal Pradesh has an area of 46.4 km².
(4) Chail wildlife sanctuary of Himachal Pradesh was established in 1962.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1) and (3) only
• (B) (1) and (2) only
• (C) (1) and (4) only
• (D) (2) and (4) only

Q81. Match List I with List II :
List-I (Scheme): (a) Atal Pension Yojana, (b) Startup India Scheme, (c) Eco-NIWAS, (d) BharatNet.
List-II (Ministry): (i) Ministry of Communications, (ii) Ministry of Finance, (iii) Ministry of Commerce and Industry, (iv) Ministry of Power.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (a) (i) (b) (iii) (c) (iv) (d) (ii)
• (B) (a) (ii) (b) (iii) (c) (i) (d) (iv)
• (C) (a) (ii) (b) (i) (c) (iii) (d) (iv)
• (D) (a) (ii) (b) (iv) (c) (i) (d) (iii)

Q82. Which of the following institutes drafted the Legal Metrology (IST) Rules, 2025?

• (A) National Physical Laboratory
• (B) Physical Research Laboratory
• (C) Central Scientific Instruments Organisation
• (D) National Institute for Interdisciplinary Science and Technology

Q83. Match List I with List II:
List-I (Author): (a) Mahatma Gandhi, (b) J.L. Nehru, (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, (d) Lala Lajpat Rai.
List-II (Book): (i) The Political Future of India, (ii) Pakistan or The Partition of India, (iii) Whither India, (iv) Guide to London.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
• (B) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
• (C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
• (D) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

Q84. Match the Tribal Leaders with their respective region.
List-I (Tribal Leader): (a) UTirot Sing, (b) Thalakkal Chandu, (c) Alluri Sitaram Raju, (d) Chakra Bisoi.
List-II (Region): (i) Odisha, (ii) Andhra, (iii) Kerala, (iv) Meghalaya.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
• (B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
• (C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
• (D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Q85. In which case Supreme Court decided that not singing of National Anthem cannot be considered its disrespect or offence ?

• (A) Bijoe Emmanuel case
• (B) Braj Bhushan case
• (C) Maneka Gandhi case
• (D) M.C. Mittal case

Q86. Match List I with List II:
List-I (Place): (a) Phagwara, (b) Gokak, (c) Kullu, (d) Mandya.
List-II (Industry): (i) Silk Textile Industry, (ii) Woollen Textile Industry, (iii) Sugar Industry, (iv) Cotton Textile Industry.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
• (B) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
• (C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
• (D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

Q87. Match List I with List II:
List-I (Range): (a) The Aravalli Range, (b) The Satpura Range, (c) The Western Ghats, (d) The Eastern Ghats.
List-II (Peak): (i) Gali Konda, (ii) Guru Shikhar, (iii) Kalsubai, (iv) Dhupgarh.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
• (B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
• (C) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
• (D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

Q88. Match List I with List II:
List-I (Social Reformers): (a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy, (b) Swami Dayananda, (c) Swami Vivekananda, (d) Jyotiba Phule.
List-II (Organisation): (i) Satya Shodhak Samaj, (ii) Ramakrishna Mission, (iii) Brahmo Samaj, (iv) Arya Samaj.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
• (B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
• (C) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
• (D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

Q89. Match List I with List II:
List-I (Constitutional Amendments): (a) 77th Amendment, (b) 81st Amendment, (c) 82nd Amendment, (d) 85th Amendment.
List-II (Reservations for SC & STs): (i) “Consequential Seniority in Reservation, (ii) Reservations in Promotion, (iii) Relexation in Qualifying marks, (iv) Carry forward unfulfilled vacancies of SC & STS.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
• (B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
• (C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
• (D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

Q90. Match the following economic policies with their launch years :
List-I: (a) PM-KISAN, (b) Ayushman Bharat, (c) Startup India, (d) Gati Shakti.
List-II: (i) 2016, (ii) 2019, (iii) 2018, (iv) 2021.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
• (B) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
• (C) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
• (D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

Q91. Match the following inflation metrics with their values for FY 2024-25 (April-December):
List-I: (a) CPI Inflation (%), (b) Food Inflation (%), (c) Core Inflation (%), (d) WPI Inflation (%).
List-II: (i) 2.1, (ii) 8.4, (iii) 5.4, (iv) 3.5.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
• (B) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
• (C) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
• (D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

Q92. Match List I with List II:
List-I (ICFRE Centre): (a) IWST, (b) IFB, (c) IFR, (d) RFRI.
List-II (Place): (i) Hyderabad, (ii) Jorhat, (iii) Bengaluru, (iv) Ranchi.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
• (B) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
• (C) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
• (D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Q93. Match List I with List II:
List-I (Indian Breed of Sheep): (a) Patanwadi, (b) Bakharwal, (c) Rampur Bushair, (d) Lohi.
List-II (State where found): (i) Rajasthan, (ii) Jammu & Kashmir, (iii) Gujarat, (iv) Himachal Pradesh.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iii)
• (B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
• (C) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
• (D) (iii) (iii) (iv) (i)

Q94. Match List I with List II:
List-I (Function): (a) Absorption of food, (b) Killing of bacteria, (c) Chewing of food, (d) Formation of faeces.
List-II (Part of digestive canal): (i) Stomach, (ii) Large intestine, (iii) Small intestine, (iv) Buccal cavity.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
• (B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
• (C) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
• (D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

Q95. Match List I with List II:
List-I (Day): (a) Jan Aushadhi Diwas, (b) World Sparrow Day, (c) Pi Day, (d) World Heritage Day.
List-II (Date): (i) April 18, (ii) March 20, (iii) March 07, (iv) March 14.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
• (B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
• (C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
• (D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

Q96. Match List I with List II:
List-I (Name of Peak): (a) Mt. Whitney, (b) Mt. Logan, (c) Ben Nevis, (d) Mont Blanc.
List-II (Country): (i) Canada, (ii) U.S.A., (iii) France, (iv) Scotland.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
• (B) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
• (C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
• (D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Q97. Who was the politician and social worker popularly called “Sindhi Gandhi” in the Sindhi region, and was elected to the 1st legislative assembly of part ‘C’ state of Himachal Pradesh (1952-56) ?

• (A) Krishna Nand Swami
• (B) Pt. Padam Dev
• (C) Gauri Parsad
• (D) Piru Ram

Q98. Match List I with List II:
List-I (Code): (a) Highest Rainfall (2018 Data), (b) Second Most Incidents Reported (2024 Crime Data), (c) Fourth Highest Population (2011 Census), (d) Fourth Largest Area.
List-II (District): (i) Shimla, (ii) Mandi, (iii) Kangra, (iv) Solan.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
• (B) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
• (C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
• (D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

Q99. Match List I with List II:
List-I (Scheme): (a) Mukhya Mantri Roshni Yojana, (b) Himachal Pradesh Horticulture Development Project, (c) Mukhya Mantri Gram Path Yojana, (d) Swavalamban Yojana.
List-II (Starting Year): (i) 2015, (ii) 2019, (iii) 2009, (iv) 2020.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
• (B) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
• (C) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
• (D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

Q100. Match List I with List II:
List-I (Wildlife Sanctuary): (a) Kias, (b) Tarla, (c) Tundah, (d) Bandli.
List-II (District): (i) Kullu, (ii) Shimla, (iii) Chamba, (iv) Mandi.

• (A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
• (B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
• (C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
• (D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)