Q1. Shinku-La tunnel pertains to which of the following?

• (a) Sikkim
• (b) Ladakh
• (c) Jammu and Kashmir
• (d) Himachal Pradesh

Q2. Digital India Act, 2023 will replace which of the following?

• (a) Information Technology Act, 2008
• (b) Information Technology Act, 2020
• (c) Information Technology Act, 2000
• (d) Information Technology Act, 2011

Q3. “Jivaka Chintamani” was written by …………..

• (a) Seethalai Sathanar
• (b) Tiruttakkatevar
• (c) Dandin
• (d) None of these

Q4. Bangar alluvium soils are also known as:

• (a) Loess
• (b) Kankars
• (c) Vertisols
• (d) Regur

Q5. Jhelum river rises from:

• (a) Wular lake
• (b) Dul lake
• (c) Verinag spring
• (d) Potwar plateau

Q6. Under which Constitutional amendment reservations to Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) was given?

• (a) 95 th Amendment
• (b) 103 rd Amendment
• (c) 104 th Amendment
• (d) 105 th Amendment

Q7. Under which Article of the Constitution a speaker allows any member to speak in Parliament in his/her mother language?

• (a) Article 19(1)
• (b) Article 343(1)
• (c) Article 120(1)
• (d) Article 210(1)

Q8. Which organization releases the SDG India-Index, which comprehensively documents the progress made by India’s States and Union Territories towards implementing the 2030 SDG targets?

• (a) RBI
• (b) NITI Aayog
• (c) NIPFP
• (d) SEBI

Q9. What is the correct ascending order of Indian States on the basis of the poverty headcount ratio (PHR) as per the National Multidimensional Poverty Index measured by NITI Aayog?

• (a) Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar
• (b) Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan
• (c) Bihar, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh
• (d) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh

Q10. Lithosphere is known as:

• (a) Abiotic component
• (b) Biotic component
• (c) Both (a) and (b)
• (d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Q11. First comprehensive population policy was announced by Government of India on:

• (a) 16 April, 1974
• (b) 16 April, 1975
• (c) 16 April, 1976
• (d) 16 April, 1977

Q12. Institute of Forest Biodiversity is located at:

• (a) Dehradun
• (b) Allahabad
• (c) Hyderabad
• (d) Shimla

Q13. The greatest worldwide use of water is for:

• (a) Irrigation
• (b) Industry
• (c) Human consumption
• (d) Washing and flushing toilets

Q14. Which of the following is a biotic component?

• (a) Soil
• (b) Air
• (c) Animal
• (d) Water

Q15. International Day of Forests, 2023 pertains to the theme of:

• (a) Forests and Energy
• (b) Forests and Health
• (c) Forests and sustainable production
• (d) Forests and Biodiversity

Q16. Temperate grasslands of Africa are known as:

• (a) The Steppes
• (b) The Velds
• (c) The Downs
• (d) The Pampas

Q17. Who was the first President of Himalayan Hill States Regional Council (formed in 1946)?

• (a) Shivanand Ramaul
• (b) Pandit Padam Dev
• (c) Swami Purnanand
• (d) Shyam Singh Negi

Q18. Dodra-Kwar revolt took place under the leadership of ……..

• (a) Shobha Ram
• (b) Rana Hardev Singh
• (c) Ran Bahdur Singh
• (d) None of these

Q19. Who become the Chief Minister of Himachal Pradesh for maximum times?

• (a) Y.S. Parmar
• (b) Virbhadra Singh
• (c) Shanta Kumar
• (d) Thakur Ramlal

Q20. Winnowing refers to:

• (a) Separation of grain from stalk
• (b) Separation of components from mixture
• (c) Separation of large sized impurities
• (d) Separation of water vapour from liquid

Q21. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Gati Shakti digital platform involves the creation of a common umbrella platform through which infrastructure projects can be planned and implemented.
Statement II: Gati Shakti Digital platform is based on twelve pillars.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q22. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Money Mission was launched in the year 2017.
Statement II: Sweet Revolution promotes the apiculture in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q23. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: “The 1857 Revolt was a war of fanatic religionists against Christians” – Statement by Sir James Outram.
Statement II: “The so called First National War of Independence of 1857 – is neither first, nor National, nor a war of Independence.” – Statement by R.C. Majumdar.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q24. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: ‘Samavartana’ – is a category of Hindu Slaves.
Statement II: ‘Sankarvarman’ – is considered as the founder of the Lohara Dynasty of Kashmir.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q25. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: President can dissolve the Lok Sabha on the advice of Speaker.
Statement II: Rajya Sabha under Article 312 enjoys special power to appoint members of Human Rights Commission.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q26. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: National Flag was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 22 July, 1947.
Statement II: Neelam Sanjiva Reddy has also worked as Speaker, Lok Sabha prior to his election as President of India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q27. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Strong Sustainability Rule is a rule which requires a separate preservation of each category of critical asset, assuming these to be complements rather than substitutes.
Statement II: Weak Sustainability is a rule which seeks to maintain the aggregate monetary value of the total stock of the assets, assuming a high degree of substitutability among the various asset types.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q28. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The theory of Unbalanced Growth was advocated by Prof. Hirschman.
Statement II: The theory of Unbalanced Growth states that investment should be first made in certain core sectors of the economy which have a high degree of complementarity. Once, the process of growth is initiated, it will spread to other sectors through forward and backward linkages.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q29. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The percentage of the population aged 65 years and above in India as of 2021, is around 6.2% of the Indian population.
Statement II: The population growth rate in India as of 2021 is around 0.98%.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q30. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The percentage of the population that is employed in service sector in India as of 2021 is around 32% of the Indian population.
Statement II: The percentage of the population that is employed in the industrial sector in India as of 2021 is around 30% of the Indian population.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q31. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Kutch Biosphere Reserve is known for Indian wild ass.
Statement II: Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is famous for Red Panda.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q32. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Most species in the world go extinct because humans kill them.
Statement II: The Western Ghats region harbours the largest global population of Asian elephant.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q33. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Force has magnitude as well as direction.
Statement II: Sliding friction is smaller than static friction.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q34. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The materials which allow heat to pass through them easily are called insulators.
Statement II: The range of temperature in clinical thermometer is from 32 0 C.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q35. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Responsible use of Artificial Intelligence in the Military (REAIM-2023) Summit was held in Hague.
Statement II: India-Australia Summit was held in April, 2023.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q36. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Sheffield city in England is famous for films.
Statement II: Oporto ity in Portugal is known for oil fields.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q37. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The ancient Kulindas had a Republican form of Government.
Statement II: The Rajas of Chamba belonged to the Chandra (Lunar) line of the Rajputs.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q38. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Chandra Tal lake in Lahaul and Spiti district of Himachal Pradesh is about 6000 m above sea level.
Statement II: Suraj Tal lake is the source of Spiti river in Himachal Pradesh.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q39. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Bara Lacha Pass in Himachal Pradesh connects the Manali with Kaza.
Statement II: Sonapani is the longest glacier of the Pir Panjal range near Rohtang Pass.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q40. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Soldiers of Nasiri Battalion (Gorkha Regiment) situated in Jutogh in Shimla started uprising in 1857.
Statement II: The states of Koti and Balsan of Himachal opposed the British rulers.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q41. Arrange the following missions in India from newest to oldest:
(1) Vande Bharat Mission
(2) Kaveri Mission
(3) Mission Indradhanush
(4) Nipun Bharat Mission.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 1, 3, 2, 4
• (b) 2, 4, 1, 3
• (c) 2, 4, 3, 1
• (d) 1, 4, 2, 3

Q42. Arrange the following schemes in chronological order from the year of launch:
(1) Make in India
(2) National Skill Development Mission
(3) Startup India
(4) Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 4, 1, 2, 3
• (b) 4, 2, 3, 1
• (c) 1, 2, 4, 3
• (d) 2, 4, 1, 3

Q43. Arrange these British Viceroys in chronological order:
(1) Lord Lansdowne
(2) Lord Northbrook
(3) Lord John Lawrence
(4) Lord Elgin I.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 4, 3, 2, 1
• (b) 4, 2, 3, 1
• (c) 3, 4, 2, 1
• (d) 3, 4, 1, 2

Q44. Arrange these Medieval Rulers of Mewar in chronological order:
(1) Hammir
(2) Rana Kumbha
(3) Rana Mokal
(4) Rana Lakha.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 4, 1, 3, 2
• (b) 4, 3, 1, 2
• (c) 1, 4, 3, 2
• (d) 1, 4, 2, 3

Q45. Arrange the following coal fields of India from North to South:
(1) Neyveli
(2) Umarsar
(3) Palana
(4) Kalakot.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 1, 2, 3, 4
• (b) 2, 4, 3, 3
• (c) 4, 3, 2, 1
• (d) 1, 3, 2, 4

Q46. Arrange the following river basins of India from lowest to highest in relation to area:
(1) Pennar
(2) Tapi
(3) Kaveri
(4) Narmada.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 1, 2, 3, 4
• (b) 2, 3, 4, 1
• (c) 3, 4, 2, 1
• (d) 4, 2, 1, 3

Q47. As per Article 110 of the Constitution what is true about money bill?
(1) All the expenditure made by Prime Minister of India
(2) Imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax
(3) Appropriation of money out of consolidated fund of India
(4) Custody of the consolidated fund or contingency fund of India, the payment of money into or the withdrawal of money from any such fund.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 2, 3, 4
• (b) 2 and 4
• (c) 1, 2, 3
• (d) 3, 4, 1

Q48. Arrange the following statements in proper chronological order:
(1) Rio +20 Summit which resulted in an outcome document, “The Future We Want” in which states committed to develop a suite of SDGs.
(2) Millennium Summit which resulted in a set of targets like environmental sustainability, the eradication of extreme poverty and equality for women now known as MDGs.
(3) Brundtland Report, “Our Common Future” emphasized the need for the integration of economic development, environmental protection and social justice and inclusion
(4) COP-27 Summit in which it was agreed to set up a Loss and Damage fund to provide financial assistance to poor nations, stricken by climate disaster.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 1, 2, 3, 4
• (b) 2, 1, 4, 3
• (c) 4, 2, 3, 1
• (d) 3, 2, 1, 4

Q49. Arrange the following Schemes in proper chronological order of their implementation:
(1) Ayushman Bharat-PMJAY
(2) Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojna
(3) Pradhan Mantri Gati Shakti Yojana
(4) Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 1, 4, 2, 3
• (b) 2, 1, 4, 3
• (c) 4, 2, 3, 1
• (d) 3, 2, 1, 4

Q50. Consider the following states:
(1) Haryana
(2) Punjab
(3) Uttar Pradesh
(4) Bihar.
With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms sex ratio-Female per 1000 males (according to census 2011), which one of the following is the correct ascending order? Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 1, 2, 3, 4
• (b) 1, 2, 3, 4
• (c) 2, 4, 1, 3
• (d) 4, 1, 3, 2

Q51. Consider the following Acts and Policy:
(1) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
(2) Water Cess Act
(3) The National Water Policy
(4) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act.
With reference to the Acts and Policy mentioned above, in terms of their starting year, which one of the following is the correct ascending order? Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 1, 2, 4, 3
• (b) 1, 2, 3, 4
• (c) 2, 4, 1, 3
• (d) 4, 1, 3, 2

Q52. Arrange the following conventions in chronological order:
(1) Convention to combat desertification
(2) Convention on biological diversity
(3) Convention on trade in endangered species
(4) Convention on wetlands.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 4, 3, 1, 2
• (b) 1, 2, 3, 4
• (c) 4, 3, 2, 1
• (d) 4, 2, 3, 1

Q53. Arrange the following states in relation to percentage of the total area under forest cover from highest to lowest:
(1) Mizoram
(2) Meghalaya
(3) Manipur
(4) Nagaland.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 4, 2, 1, 3
• (b) 1, 2, 4, 3
• (c) 1, 2, 3, 4
• (d) 4, 3, 2, 1

Q54. Arrange the following animal products in terms of percent protein from highest to lowest:
(1) Cow milk
(2) Egg
(3) Meat
(4) Fish.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 1, 2, 3, 4
• (b) 2, 4, 1, 3
• (c) 3, 4, 2, 1
• (d) 1, 3, 2, 4

Q55. Arrange the following international groups in order of their establishment from older to newer:
(1) Paris Club
(2) Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)
(3) Indo-Pacific Regional Dialogue (IPRD)
(4) Wassenaar Arrangement.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 2, 4, 1, 3
• (b) 1, 3, 4, 2
• (c) 1, 2, 4, 3
• (d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Q56. Arrange the following deserts of world from smallest to largest in terms of Area:
(1) Gobi
(2) Thar
(3) Kalahari
(4) Taklimakan.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 1, 2, 3, 4
• (b) 4, 3, 2, 1
• (c) 2, 4, 3, 1
• (d) 1, 3, 2, 4

Q57. Arrange these events related to the History of Himachal Pradesh in chronological order:
(1) Mass Movement in Nalagarh
(2) Land Movement of Sirmour
(3) Peasant Movement of Theog
(4) Farmer Movement in Chamba.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 2, 1, 4, 3
• (b) 1, 2, 3, 4
• (c) 1, 2, 4, 3
• (d) 2, 1, 3, 4

Q58. Among the following which is correct about Mandi conspiracy?
(1) Mandi conspiracy took place under the leadership of Gadar Parti in 1914-15
(2) Some Gadar Party members from USA came to recruit workers from Mandi and Suket States
(3) Miyan Jawahar and Queen of Mandi Khairgarhi came under their influence
(4) In this venture members of Gadar Party were successful.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 1, 2, 3
• (b) 2, 3, 4
• (c) 3, 4, 1
• (d) 4 and 2

Q59. Towards its journey to become full state what is correct about Himachal Pradesh?
(1) It became Chief Commissioner’s Province in 1948
(2) It become Union Territory in 1956
(3) It got its first Chief Minister in 1967
(4) It became 18 th State of the Union in 1971.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 1, 2, 3
• (b) 3, 4, 1
• (c) 1, 2, 4
• (d) 3, 2, 4

Q60. Arrange the following elements in terms of their atomic number from lowest to highest:
(1) Carbon
(2) Oxygen
(3) Sodium
(4) Silicon.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 4, 3, 2, 1
• (b) 3, 4, 1, 2
• (c) 2, 4, 1, 3
• (d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Q61. Consider the following statements:
(1) Nuclear energy contributes about 10% of the total electricity generation in India
(2) India has 22 nuclear reactors in 7 power plants
(3) Nuclear energy is the fifth largest source of electricity in India
(4) The upcoming nuclear power plant at Gorakhpur village pertain to Uttar Pradesh.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only
• (b) 2 and 4 only
• (c) 2 and 3 only
• (d) 3 and 4 only

Q62. Consider the following statements:
(1) Ken river passes through Panna Tiger Reserve
(2) Ken-Betwa link is a road network project
(3) Ken and Betwa are the tributaries of Chambal river
(4) Matatila dam is located over Betwa river.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 2 and 3 only
• (b) 1 and 4 only
• (c) 1 and 3 only
• (d) 2 and 4 only

Q63. Consider the following statements:
(1) Aligarh Scientific Society was founded by Zakir Hussain in 1878
(2) Prarthana Samaj was established on 1866
(3) Paramhans Mandali was established on 1849
(4) Manav Dharm Sabha was established on 1844.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 3 and 4 only
• (b) 1 and 4 only
• (c) 2 and 4 only
• (d) 2 and 3 only

Q64. Consider the following statements:
(1) “Tuzuk-i-Baburi” was written in Pure Persian Language
(2) Poet Amir Khusro’s first Masnavi on Historical subject is Qiran-us-sadain, which was written in 1289
(3) “Jhanjhari Masjid” at Jaunpur was built by Hussain Shah
(4) Sufi Saint Sidi Maula was put to death by Sultan Jalaluddin Khalji for attempting a rebellion.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 1 and 4 only
• (b) 3 and 4 only
• (c) 2 and 3 only
• (d) 2 and 4 only

Q65. Consider the following statements:
(1) Congress Socialist Party was established in 1933
(2) The book “Marx, Gandhi and Socialism” was written by Jaya Prakash Narayan
(3) The book “Radical Humanist” was written by M.N. Roy
(4) The book “Unhappy India’ was written by Lala Lajpat Rai.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 2 and 4 only
• (b) 2 and 3 only
• (c) 1 and 4 only
• (d) 3 and 4 only

Q66. Consider the following statements:
(1) Brown coal is known as Tertiary coal in India.
(2) Lignite coal is superior to peat in India
(3) The largest lignite deposits of India are at Korba.
(4) Nichahom coal field is located in Gujrat.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only
• (b) 2 and 3 only
• (c) 3 and 4 only
• (d) 1 and 4 only

Q67. Consider the following statements:
(1) Sardar Sarovar project is located on Sabarmati river of India
(2) Bhawani Sagar irrigation project is located in Erode district of Tamil Nadu
(3) Mayurakashi irrigation project pertains to Chambal river of India
(4) Matatila project pertains to Betwa river of India.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only
• (b) 2 and 4 only
• (c) 3 and 4 only
• (d) 1 and 3 only

Q68. Consider the following statements:
(1) Constitution’s 61 st amendment is related to the reduction in voting age
(2) Constitution’s 93 rd amendment is related to reservation for EWS category
(3) Constitution’s 86 th amendment added article 19A in the constitution
(4) In 2002, duty of parents to provide education to their children from 6 to 14 years was added.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only
• (b) 2 and 3 only
• (c) 3 and 4 only
• (d) 4 and 1 only

Q69. Consider the following statements:
(1) Part-IX was inserted in the constitution by 73 rd constitutional amendment
(2) Art 243D provides reservation to women in Gram Panchayats
(3) Panchayats are not dependent on states for their budgets
(4) State legislature can’t make laws for auditing the accounts of Panchayats.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only
• (b) 2 and 3 only
• (c) 3 and 4 only
• (d) 4 and 2 only

Q70. Consider the following statements:
(1) Article 340 of the Constitution deals with the appointment of Commission for Backward classes
(2) Article 341 of the Constitution deals with scheduled tribes
(3) Article 342 of the Constitution is related to scheduled castes
(4) Article 342A has been added through 102 nd constitutional amendment.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only
• (b) 2 and 3 only
• (c) 3 and 4 only
• (d) 1 and 4 only

Q71. With reference to the World Development Report 1993, improved health contributes to economic growth in four ways, consider the following statements:
(1) It reduces production losses caused by worker illness
(2) It decreases the enrolment of children in schools and makes them worse in learning
(3) It permits the use of natural resources that had been totally or nearly inaccessible because of disease
(4) It decreases for alternative uses resources that would otherwise have to be spent on treating illness.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 1 and 4 only
• (b) 1 and 3 only
• (c) 1 and 2 only
• (d) 2 and 4 only

Q72. Consider the following statements:
(1) The average temperature of India has increased by about 0.7 0 C since 1901
(2) India will get its non-fossil energy capacity to 550 GW by 2050
(3) In 2019, China emitted 50 percent of the world GHGs
(4) India will achieve the target of Net Zero carbon emissions by 2070.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 3 and 4 only
• (b) 1 and 2 only
• (c) 2 and 4 only
• (d) 1 and 4 only

Q73. Consider the following statements:
(1) Protozoans cause serious diseases like dysentery
(2) All microorganisms grow on our food and cause food poisoning
(3) Microorganisms can live in desert environment
(4) All microorganisms are useful for commercial production of medicines and alcohol.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 2 and 4 only
• (b) 1 and 4 only
• (c) 1 and 3 only
• (d) 2 and 3 only

Q74. Consider the following statements:
(1) Manure and fertilizers are the main source of nutrient supply to crops
(2) Inorganic farming is practiced with minimal use of fertilizers and pesticides.
(3) Growing of different crops on a piece of land in pre-planned succession is called intercropping
(4) Bee-keeping is done to get wax.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only
• (b) 3 and 4 only
• (c) 2 and 3 only
• (d) 1 and 4 only

Q75. Consider the following statements:
(1) India became a member of Wassenaar Arrangement in 2023
(2) The 17 th Asia Pacific Regional meeting was held in Singapore
(3) The 9 th India-Oman Strategic Dialogue will be conducted in Oman in 2024
(4) Oman is at the Gateway of Strait of Gibralter through which India imports about 20% of its oil imports.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only
• (b) 3 and 4 only
• (c) 2 and 3 only
• (d) 1 and 3 only

Q76. Consider the following statements:
(1) Sugarcane is chiefly grown in Russa
(2) Asbestos are mainly found in Canada
(3) Copper is chiefly product in Chile
(4) Black soils are majorly required for the cultivation of coffee.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only
• (b) 2 and 3 only
• (c) 2 and 4 only
• (d) 3 and 4 only

Q77. Consider the following statements:
(1) In Himachal Pradesh, Grant from the centre is the highest percentage of revenue receipts.
(2) In Himachal Pradesh, non-tax revenue is likely to increase to Rs 3,769 crore in FY 2022-23 (BE)
(3) In Himachal Pradesh, the tax revenue growth rate is estimated at 10.84% in FY 2022-23 (BE)
(4) In Himachal Pradesh, growth of subsidy expenditure is estimated to be 4.44% in FY 2022-23 (BE).
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 1 and 3 only
• (b) 2 and 3 only
• (c) 1 and 2 only
• (d) 3 and 4 only

Q78. Consider the following statements:
(1) Himachal Pradesh was ranked 18 th out of 36 states/Uts/Cities in Export Preparedness Index 2021
(2) Lahaul-Spiti is at the bottom of the rankings in District Good Governance Index 2021
(3) Banks have sanctioned Rs 63.46 crore to 476 new enterprises under stand Up India scheme during this financial year 2022-23.
(4) Banks have funded 44,398 farmers through Kisan Credit Cards during 2022-23.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 1 and 3 only
• (b) 2 and 3 only
• (c) 1 and 2 only
• (d) 3 and 4 only

Q79. Consider the following statements:
(1) The sex ratio in the state is 972 females per 1000 males, which is higher than the national average of 940 females per 1000 meles
(2) Service is the primary occupation of people in Himachal Pradesh, with over 90% of the population dependent on it for their livelihood.
(3) Himachal Pradesh has a per capita income of Rs 358369 which is higher than the national average
(4) The state has a high Human development Index (HDI) of 0.707, which is higher than the national average of 0.640.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 1 and 4 only
• (b) 1 and 3 only
• (c) 1 and 2 only
• (d) 2 and 4 only

Q80. Consider the following statements:
(1) The rainiest district in Himachal Pradesh is Kangra.
(2) Rainfall in the Alpine region of Himachal Pradesh varies between 300-600 mm
(3) Winter season in Himachal Pradesh extends from October to March
(4) Mandi is the hottest place in Himachal Pradesh.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) 2 and 4 only
• (b) 3 and 4 only
• (c) 1 and 2 only
• (d) 1 and 3 only

Q81. Match List I with List II:
List-I (Scheme): a. Vahan Mitra Scheme, b. Indira Rasoi Yojana, c. Emissions Trading scheme, d. Gaushala Project.
List-II (State): i. Rajasthan, ii. Madhya Pradesh, iii. Andhra Pradesh, iv. Gujrat.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) iii iv ii i
• (b) iii ii i iv
• (c) iii i ii iv
• (d) iii i iv ii

Q82. Match List I with List II:
List-I (Headquarters): a. Guntur, b. Bengaluru, c. Kottayam, d. Kolkata.
List-II (Board): i. Coffee Board, ii. Tabacco Board, iii. Tea Board, iv. Rubber Board.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) i ii iii iv
• (b) ii i iv iii
• (c) ii iv iii i
• (d) i iii ii iv

Q83. Match List I with List II:
List-I (Vijayanagar Kings): a. Virupaksha-II, b. Achyuta Ray, c. Sriranga-I, d. Thimma.
List-II (Dynasty): i. Sangam, ii. Tuluva, iii. Aravidu, iv. Saluva.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) i ii iii iv
• (b) ii i iv iii
• (c) iv ii i iii
• (d) iv iii ii i

Q84. Match List I with List II:
List-I (Important wars): a. First Carnatic War, b. Third Carnatic War, c. First Anglo-Mysore War, d. Second Anglo-Mysore War.
List-II (End with Treaty): i. Treaty of Madras, ii. Treaty of Mangalore, iii. Treaty of Paris, iv. Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) iii ii i iv
• (b) iv ii i iii
• (c) iv iii i ii
• (d) iii ii iv i

Q85. Match List I with List II:
List-I (Important Battles/war): a. Battle of Machhiwara, b. Battle of Bilgram, c. Battle of Rakshasi-Tangadi, d. Battle of Dohariya.
List-II (Year): i. 1532, ii. 1565, iii. 1555, iv. 1540.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) i iv iii ii
• (b) i iv ii iii
• (c) iii iv i ii
• (d) iii iv ii i

Q86. Match List I with List II:
List-I (Pass): a. Niti Pass, b. Rohtang Pass, c. Likhapani Pass, d. Khunjerab Pass.
List-II (Place): i. Arunachal Pradesh, ii. Ladakh, iii. Himahal Pradesh, iv. Uttarakhand.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) iv iii i ii
• (b) iv iii ii i
• (c) iv ii iii i
• (d) iv ii i iii

Q87. Match List I with List II:
List-I (Doabs): a. Bist Doab, b. Chaj doab, c. Bari Doab, d. Sind Doab.
List-II (Rivers): i. Between Chenab and Jhelum, ii. Between Beas and Ravi, iii. Between Jhelum and Indus, iv. Between Beas and Sutlej.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) i ii iii iv
• (b) iv i iii ii
• (c) iv ii iii i
• (d) iv i ii iii

Q88. Match List I with List II:
List-I: a. Domestic Violence Act, b. Sexual Harassment At workplace, c. Commission for Sati (Prevention) Act, d. Dowry Prohibition Act.
List-II: i. 1961, ii. 1987, iii. 2013, iv. 2005.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) i ii iii iv
• (b) iv iii ii i
• (c) ii iv i iii
• (d) iii ii iv i

Q89. Match List I with List II:
List-I: a. Organisation of village Panchayat, b. Promotion of International Peace and Security, c. Uniform Civil Code, d. Equal Justice and Free legal aid.
List-II: i. Article 44, ii. Article 39A, iii. Article 40, iv. Article 51.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) ii iii iv i
• (b) i ii iii iv
• (c) iii iv i ii
• (d) iv i ii iii

Q90. Match List I with List II:
List-I: a. Critical Minimum Effort Hypothesis, b. Theory of social dualism, c. Low-level Equilibrium Trap, d. Theory of Technological Dualism.
List-II: i. Boeke, ii. Leibenstein, iii. Higgins, iv. Nelson.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) ii i iv iii
• (b) i iv iii ii
• (c) iii iv ii i
• (d) iv i ii iii

Q91. Match List I with List II:
List-I: a. “Development as Freedom”, b. “Fault Lines: How Hidden Fractures Still Threaten the World Economy”, c. “India: the Emerging Giant”, d. “The Making of India: Economic Policy and Nationalism, 1947-2017”.
List-II: i. Amartya Sen, ii. Raghuram Rajan, iii. Montek Singh Ahluwalia, iv. C. Rangarajan.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) iii i ii iv
• (b) ii i iii iv
• (c) iv i ii iii
• (d) i ii iv iii

Q92. Match List I with List II:
List-I (Environmental Policy): a. Wildlife Conservation Strategy, b. National Biodiversity Action Plan, c. National Forest Policy, d. National Zoo Policy.
List-II (Year): i. 2014, ii. 1991, iii. 2002, iv. 1988.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) ii iv i iii
• (b) iv ii i iii
• (c) i iii ii iv
• (d) iii i iv ii

Q93. Match List I with List II:
List-I (Vitamin/Mineral): a. Iron, b. Iodine, c. Calcium, d. Vitamin B1.
List-II (Symptoms): i. Weak muscles, ii. Anaemia, iii. Mental disability in children, iv. Tooth decay.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) ii iii iv i
• (b) ii iv iii i
• (c) ii iii i iv
• (d) i ii iv iii

Q94. Match list I with list II:
List-I (Quantity): a. Weight, b. Volume, c. Temperature, d. Pressure.
List-II (Unit of Measurement): i. Cubic meter, ii. Newton, iii. Pascal, iv. Kelvin.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) ii iv i iii
• (b) iii iv ii i
• (c) ii iii ii i
• (d) I iii iv ii

Q95. Match list I with list II:
List-I (Defence Exercise): a. Surya Kiran, b. Garuda Shakti, c. Vijay Prahar, d. SIMBEX.
List-II (Participant Countries): i. India and Indonesia, ii. India and Nepal, iii. India and Singapore, iv. India and USA.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) i ii iii iv
• (b) ii iii iv i
• (c) ii i iv iii
• (d) ii iv iii i

Q96. Match list I with List II:
List-I (Epithet): a. Land of Snow, b. Granite City, c. White City, d. Pearl of Orient.
List-II (Country): i. Aberdeen, ii. Canada, iii. Belgrade, iv. Hong Kong.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) i ii iv iii
• (b) ii i iii iv
• (c) ii i iv iii
• (d) ii iii iv i

Q97. Match List I with List II:
List-I (Organizations): a. Dujam Movement, b. All India State people Conference, c. Himalayan Riyasati Praja Mandal, d. Kunihar Praja Mandal.
List-II (Year): i. 1939, ii. 1939, iii. 1906, iv. 1927.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) i ii iii iv
• (b) iii iv ii i
• (c) iv ii i iii
• (d) ii iii iv i

Q98. Match List I with List II:
List-I (District): a. Chamba, b. Kullu, c. Sirmaur, d. Kangra.
List-II (Reserved Forest Area in sq km in 2019-20): i. 1050, ii. 374, iii. 164, iv. 70.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) iii ii i iv
• (b) ii iii i iv
• (c) i ii iv iii
• (d) ii i iv iii

Q99. Match List I with List II:
List-I: a. Himachal Pradesh Skill Development Project, b. Himachal Pradesh Kaushal Vikas Nigam, c. Mukhya Mantri Yuva Ajivika Yojana, d. Himachal Grihini Suvidha Yojana.
List-II: i. 2018, ii. 2017, iii. 2014, iv. 2019.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) iii i ii iv
• (b) ii iii i iv
• (c) iv i ii iii
• (d) i iii ii iv

Q100. Match List I with List II:
List-I (District): a. Kinnaur, b. Chamba, c. Mandi, d. Lahaul and Spiti.
List-II (Wildlife Sanctuary): i. Rupi Bhaba, ii. Sechu Tuan Nala, iii. Kibber, iv. Nargu.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (a) i ii iv iii
• (b) iv iii ii i
• (c) ii iv i iii
• (d) i ii iv iii